We've had threads before about civil asset forfeiture and specific
instances of warrantless search and seizure at Hartsfield Atlanta
airport. These can be DEA operations (like this case) but other police agencies pull the scam too. It works like this. A traveller has passed through TSA and is on his way to his gate. Typically he has checked in
and holds his boarding pass. DEA or police get an alert from TSA that
the traveler is alone, on a one-way ticket, and possibly made a
last-minute purchase.
For police, this is the type of traveler that may have contraband in
luggage or cash to seize.
We've heard of the encounters taking place on the jetway as the plane is being boarded or even on the plane after boarding but prior to
departure.
The passenger is subject to a great deal of intimidation and an implied
or actual threat that he'll miss his plane. The police may physically
block passage, demand to inspect ID and grab the boarding pass to
prevent boarding, and grab carry-on luggage.
The police demand consent to search one's person or luggage or both, but
once one is under threat, one can no longer consent voluntarily.
If the passenger is blocked from boarding, if there is coersion, then
there is a "seizure" under the Fourth Amendment. The search is not consensual; it is warrantless.
If the cop finds cash (or sometimes valuables that can be sold), it's
forfeit as "guilty property" as the cop has just made shit up about reasonable suspicion that it will be used in a crime or is the proceeds
of a crime. Judges, for CENTURIES, have been allowing cops to get away
with this. Once property is presumed guilty by the cop, the judge does
not enforce the reasonable articulable suspicion standard. Guilty
property doesn't go through criminal courts; there are no rights at
arrest, no criminal charges, no need for the prosecution to meet either
a probable cause standard or meet the standard of proof required in a preliminary hearing to proceed to trial.
With no underlying crime charged against the owner of the property who
is suspected of no crime, the property isn't automatically returned. The owner must go to court, undoubtably spending a lot more money on legal
fees than the value of the property.
But in the case of federal law, the owner can apply for reimbursement of attorneys' fees if he "substantially prevails in court".
In these cases, trial courts are inherently biased against the property owner. In the immediate case, the government stopped fighting the civil
asset forfeiture, $8500 in cash seized from an Army veteran who was
traveling to enter into a music deal. The trial judge denied attorneys'
fees as the owner had not "substantially prevailed in court" with the government ending its contest.
Reversed on appeal.
There can never be justice in these cases. The owner lost the business opportunity, spent a great deal of time trying to get his own property returned, and given how high attorneys' fees are, it cannot be fought in court.
In this case, we're talking about $15,000, four years after the incident
Because of qualified immunity, there is no possibility of suing the
police, the department, lawyers for the government, or ghod forbid,
any of the judges who fail to shut crap like this down at the very
first hearing with a blatant miscarriage of justice.
Institute for Justice case discussed in a Steve Lehto video https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=kjivzdV8RX0
Stipulating all of the above, if you were elected the Senate Majority
Leader on the Senate Judiciary Committee, charged with changing the law
to set up *reasonable* grounds for civil asset forfeiture to stop the
abuses, what would your law contain?
On Sep 1, 2025 at 10:21:54 AM PDT, "Rhino" <no_offline_contact@example.com> >wrote:
Stipulating all of the above, if you were elected the Senate Majority
Leader on the Senate Judiciary Committee, charged with changing the law
to set up *reasonable* grounds for civil asset forfeiture to stop the
abuses, what would your law contain?
Easy. Assets can only be seized after the owner has been charged with and >convicted of a crime. After conviction, seize away. But no more of this >nonsense where they take thousands of dollars in cash or vehicles or whatever, >then never even investigate, let alone charge, the owner with a crime.
Sep 1, 2025 at 10:21:54 AM PDT, Rhino <no_offline_contact@example.com>:
Stipulating all of the above, if you were elected the Senate Majority >>Leader on the Senate Judiciary Committee, charged with changing the law
to set up *reasonable* grounds for civil asset forfeiture to stop the >>abuses, what would your law contain?
Easy. Assets can only be seized after the owner has been charged with and >convicted of a crime. After conviction, seize away. But no more of this >nonsense where they take thousands of dollars in cash or vehicles or whatever, >then never even investigate, let alone charge, the owner with a crime.
On Sep 1, 2025 at 10:21:54 AM PDT, "Rhino" <no_offline_contact@example.com> wrote:
Stipulating all of the above, if you were elected the Senate Majority
Leader on the Senate Judiciary Committee, charged with changing the law
to set up *reasonable* grounds for civil asset forfeiture to stop the
abuses, what would your law contain?
Easy. Assets can only be seized after the owner has been charged with and convicted of a crime. After conviction, seize away.
But no more of this
nonsense where they take thousands of dollars in cash or vehicles or whatever,
then never even investigate, let alone charge, the owner with a crime.
. . .
Tell me this: WHY do the LEOs do civil asset forfeitures in the first
place? Is there any defensible reason for it from a law enforcement
point of view? Why haven't the courts overturned the practice? I have to >assume that people have tried to fight the seizure of their assets and >probably appealed all the way to the Supreme Court.
Rhino <no_offline_contact@example.com> wrote:
. . .
Tell me this: WHY do the LEOs do civil asset forfeitures in the first
place? Is there any defensible reason for it from a law enforcement
point of view? Why haven't the courts overturned the practice? I have to
assume that people have tried to fight the seizure of their assets and
probably appealed all the way to the Supreme Court.
They want to spend the money. It's that simple. They don't need to
defend it. The burden of proof is on the owner.
Courts, going back to England under common law, refuse to apply any sort
of standard of evidence. The cop, with no basis, assumes the property is proceeds of a crime or about to be used in a crime.
If courts require no evidence, then you can get away with murder.
On 2025-09-01 2:18 PM, Adam H. Kerman wrote:
Rhino <no_offline_contact@example.com> wrote:
. . .
Tell me this: WHY do the LEOs do civil asset forfeitures in the first >>>place? Is there any defensible reason for it from a law enforcement
point of view? Why haven't the courts overturned the practice? I have to >>>assume that people have tried to fight the seizure of their assets and >>>probably appealed all the way to the Supreme Court.
They want to spend the money. It's that simple. They don't need to
defend it. The burden of proof is on the owner.
Courts, going back to England under common law, refuse to apply any sort
of standard of evidence. The cop, with no basis, assumes the property is >>proceeds of a crime or about to be used in a crime.
If courts require no evidence, then you can get away with murder.
Don't the courts, especially the Supreme Court, see this as the naked >property grab that it is? Shouldn't they have the moral sense to see
that it's wrong?
. . .
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