Einstein devised the asymmetric-time-dilation hoax in 1905:
Albert Einstein, On the Electrodynamics of Moving Bodies, 1905: "From this there ensues the following peculiar consequence. If at the points A and B of K there are stationary clocks which, viewed in the stationary system, are synchronous; and if the
clock at A is moved with the velocity v along the line AB to B, then on its arrival at B the two clocks no longer synchronize, but the clock moved from A to B lags behind the other which has remained at B by tv^2/2c^2 (up to magnitudes of fourth and
higher order), t being the time occupied in the journey from A to B."
http://www.fourmilab.ch/etexts/einstein/specrel/www/
Einstein's 1905 postulates entail symmetric, not asymmetric, time dilation. So if Einstein had obeyed logic and had performed a valid deduction, his conclusion would have been as follows:
On its arrival at B the clock moved from A to B lags behind the stationary clock only as judged from the stationary clock's system. As judged from the moving clock's system, however, on its arrival at B, the clock moved from A to B is AHEAD of the
stationary clock.
Why did Einstein abuse logic? Because the logically valid conclusion sounds preposterous. If Einstein had stated it explicitly, Max Planck would not have found courage to publish Einstein's 1905 paper.
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