• "Light Is Made of Particles" Implies Invariable Wavelength of Light

    From Pentcho Valev@21:1/5 to All on Thu Aug 18 17:22:34 2022
    Richard Feynman: "I want to emphasize that light comes in this form - particles. It is very important to know that light behaves like particles, especially for those of you who have gone to school, where you probably learned something about light
    behaving like waves. I'm telling you the way it does behave - like particles. You might say that it's just the photomultiplier that detects light as particles, but no, every instrument that has been designed to be sensitive enough to detect weak light
    has always ended up discovering the same thing: light is made of particles." https://www.amazon.com/QED-Strange-Theory-Light-Matter/dp/0691024170

    Feynman unwittingly implies that VARIABLE wavelength of light https://youtube.com/watch?v=xsVxC_NR64M is an unrealistic wave-based concept. In Einstein-free physics the wavelength of light will be nothing more than an invariable proportionality
    coefficient in the formula

    (frequency) = (speed of light)/(wavelength)

    By the way, "light is made of particles" also implies variable speed of light as posited by Newton's theory:

    "Moreover, if light consists of particles, as Einstein had suggested in his paper submitted just thirteen weeks before this one, the second principle seems absurd: A stone thrown from a speeding train can do far more damage than one thrown from a train
    at rest; the speed of the particle is not independent of the motion of the object emitting it. And if we take light to consist of particles and assume that these particles obey Newton's laws, they will conform to Newtonian relativity and thus
    automatically account for the null result of the Michelson-Morley experiment without recourse to contracting lengths, local time, or Lorentz transformations. Yet, as we have seen, Einstein resisted the temptation to account for the null result in terms
    of particles of light and simple, familiar Newtonian ideas, and introduced as his second postulate something that was more or less obvious when thought of in terms of waves in an ether." Banesh Hoffmann, Relativity and Its Roots, p.92 https://www.amazon.
    com/Relativity-Its-Roots-Banesh-Hoffmann/dp/0486406768

    See more here: https://twitter.com/pentcho_valev

    Pentcho Valev

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  • From Pentcho Valev@21:1/5 to All on Thu Aug 18 22:14:37 2022
    The author of this text has unwittingly laid the foundations of future, Einstein-free physics:

    University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign: "Consider a falling object. Its speed increases as it is falling. Hence, if we were to associate a frequency with that object the frequency should increase accordingly as it falls to earth. Because of the
    equivalence between gravitational and inertial mass, we should observe the same effect for light. So lets shine a light beam from the top of a very tall building. If we can measure the frequency shift as the light beam descends the building, we should be
    able to discern how gravity affects a falling light beam. This was done by Pound and Rebka in 1960. They shone a light from the top of the Jefferson tower at Harvard and measured the frequency shift. The frequency shift was tiny but in agreement with the
    theoretical prediction." https://courses.physics.illinois.edu/phys419/sp2011/lectures/Lecture13/L13r.html

    Two principles implied in this particular scenario are actually valid in any scenario:

    (1) Any frequency shift is caused by a proportional speed-of-light shift.

    (2) The wavelength of light is invariable.

    Clearly (1) and (2) are equivalent (either follows from the other), given the formula

    (frequency) = (speed of light)/(wavelength)

    Still, for practical reasons, (2) will be an axiom (the fundamental axiom of Einstein-free physics) while (1) is a direct corollary.

    Other corollaries of the axiom "The wavelength of light is invariable":

    If the emitter and the observer (receiver) travel towards each other with relative speed v, the speed of light as measured by the observer is c' = c+v, as per Newton's theory.

    Spacetime and gravitational waves (ripples in spacetime) don't exist. LIGO's "discoveries" are fakes.

    The Hubble redshift is due to light slowing down as it travels through vacuum. The universe is not expanding.

    Light falls in a gravitational field with the same acceleration as ordinary falling bodies - near Earth's surface the accelerations of falling photons is g = 9.8 m/s^2. Accordingly, there is no gravitational time dilation and light deflects as per Newton,
    not as per Einstein.

    Just an illustration of the validity of the last corollary:

    "To see WHY A DEFLECTION OF LIGHT WOULD BE EXPECTED, consider Figure 2-17, which shows a beam of light entering an accelerating compartment. Successive positions of the compartment are shown at equal time intervals. Because the compartment is
    accelerating, the distance it moves in each time interval increases with time. The path of the beam of light, as observed from inside the compartment, is therefore a parabola. But according to the equivalence principle, there is no way to distinguish
    between an accelerating compartment and one with uniform velocity in a uniform gravitational field. We conclude, therefore, that A BEAM OF LIGHT WILL ACCELERATE IN A GRAVITATIONAL FIELD AS DO OBJECTS WITH REST MASS. For example, near the surface of Earth
    light will fall with acceleration 9.8 m/s^2." http://web.pdx.edu/~pmoeck/books/Tipler_Llewellyn.pdf

    More here: https://twitter.com/pentcho_valev

    Pentcho Valev

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  • From Lou@21:1/5 to Pentcho Valev on Fri Aug 19 02:04:27 2022
    On Friday, 19 August 2022 at 01:22:35 UTC+1, Pentcho Valev wrote:
    Richard Feynman: "I want to emphasize that light comes in this form - particles. It is very important to know that light behaves like particles, especially for those of you who have gone to school, where you probably learned something about light
    behaving like waves. I'm telling you the way it does behave - like particles. You might say that it's just the photomultiplier that detects light as particles, but no, every instrument that has been designed to be sensitive enough to detect weak light
    has always ended up discovering the same thing: light is made of particles." https://www.amazon.com/QED-Strange-Theory-Light-Matter/dp/0691024170

    Total lies and nonsense from Feynman. At no point have we EVER observed particles.
    The only example that particle supporters like Dick can cite are Photomultiplier detectors.
    And these so called photons they detect can just as easily be modelled as wave emr,
    being quantified at the detector screen by detector atoms.
    Fact is the dots on the screen that Feynman thought he saw werent photons.! (They were events too small to be seen by a naked eye.) Just wave emr, amplified and
    recreated as dots by software on a pc monitor for idiots like Dick to watch and
    pretend they saw a photon!😂
    Other erroneous “examples” of the particle nature of light include experiments
    like grangier coincidence and the QT eraser experiments.
    Grangier experimental results are better peeled by wave emr being
    quantifies at the detectors( QT cannot explain some of the results and
    pretends their failure of model are due to unexplained residuals)
    And the QT eraser experiments are consistent with wave only light
    being polarised at different angles at the detectors. In fact Kim et al completely ignores polarisation in his analysis. Odd, considering how polarisation is such an important fundamental aspect of light.

    Feynman unwittingly implies that VARIABLE wavelength of light https://youtube.com/watch?v=xsVxC_NR64M is an unrealistic wave-based concept. In Einstein-free physics the wavelength of light will be nothing more than an invariable proportionality
    coefficient in the formula

    (frequency) = (speed of light)/(wavelength)

    By the way, "light is made of particles" also implies variable speed of light as posited by Newton's theory:

    "Moreover, if light consists of particles, as Einstein had suggested in his paper submitted just thirteen weeks before this one, the second principle seems absurd: A stone thrown from a speeding train can do far more damage than one thrown from a train
    at rest; the speed of the particle is not independent of the motion of the object emitting it. And if we take light to consist of particles and assume that these particles obey Newton's laws, they will conform to Newtonian relativity and thus
    automatically account for the null result of the Michelson-Morley experiment without recourse to contracting lengths, local time, or Lorentz transformations. Yet, as we have seen, Einstein resisted the temptation to account for the null result in terms
    of particles of light and simple, familiar Newtonian ideas, and introduced as his second postulate something that was more or less obvious when thought of in terms of waves in an ether." Banesh Hoffmann, Relativity and Its Roots, p.92 https://www.amazon.
    com/Relativity-Its-Roots-Banesh-Hoffmann/dp/0486406768

    See more here: https://twitter.com/pentcho_valev

    Pentcho Valev

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  • From Jan Panteltje@21:1/5 to noelturntive@live.co.uk on Fri Aug 19 10:49:33 2022
    On a sunny day (Fri, 19 Aug 2022 02:04:27 -0700 (PDT)) it happened Lou <noelturntive@live.co.uk> wrote in <3fd92c4e-37f7-4f01-840b-c3428d04c929n@googlegroups.com>:

    Other erroneous =E2=80=9Cexamples=E2=80=9D of the particle nature of light include
    experiments
    like grangier coincidence and the QT eraser experiments.
    Grangier experimental results are better peeled by wave emr being
    quantifies at the detectors( QT cannot explain some of the results and >pretends their failure of model are due to unexplained residuals)
    And the QT eraser experiments are consistent with wave only light
    being polarised at different angles at the detectors. In fact Kim et al >completely ignores polarisation in his analysis. Odd, considering how >polarisation is such an important fundamental aspect of light.

    Feynman unwittingly implies that VARIABLE wavelength of light https://youtube.com/watch?v=3DxsVxC_NR64M
    is an unrealistic wave-based concept. In Einstein-free
    physics the wavelength of light will be nothing more than an invariable >proportionality coefficient in the formula

    (frequency) =3D (speed of light)/(wavelength)

    By the way, "light is made of particles" also implies variable speed of light
    as posited by Newton's theory:

    "Moreover, if light consists of particles, as Einstein had suggested in his >paper submitted just thirteen weeks before this one, the second principle >seems absurd: A stone thrown from a speeding train can do far more damage >than one thrown from a train at rest; the speed of the particle is not independent
    of the motion of the object emitting it. And if we take light to consist
    of particles and assume that these particles obey Newton's laws, they
    will conform to Newtonian relativity and thus automatically account for the >null result of the Michelson-Morley experiment without recourse to contracting >lengths, local time, or Lorentz transformations. Yet, as we have seen, >Einstein resisted the temptation to account for the null result in terms
    of particles of light and simple, familiar Newtonian ideas, and introduced
    as his second postulate something that was more or less obvious when thought >of in terms of waves in an ether." Banesh Hoffmann, Relativity and Its Roots, >p.92 https://www.amazon.com/Relativity-Its-Roots-Banesh-Hoffmann/dp/0486406768

    Take a step back.
    Einstein never managed to unite gravity with the other forces
    There is an old theory (google "Le Sage theory of gravity wikipedia")
    where gravity is caused by very fast particles flying in all directions. already back in the 5 inch or there about floppy days I wrote a simulation and to my surprise it worked.
    If now electromagnetic radiation is just a state of the Le Sage particles, and Le Sage particles move at light speed,
    then we get
    gravity propagates at the speed of light.
    And light speed does not have to be the same everywhere
    Question for me was always 'where do Le Sage particles come from'
    Maybe from black holes or our - or other big bangs... assuming there was a big bang, processes in stars?
    Wow then! now the universe is expanding ever faster!! Pushing itself apart.

    Most todays fishsicks is just parroted and you will not get published if you do not acknowledge
    how great Einstein was and how 'right' he was..
    May take generations for a fresh view to be accepted.
    We need a MECHANISM, not just a silly mamamatical formula.
    In a Le Sage system there are no singularities as at one point all particles are intercepted.
    the mamaticians like to do a divide by zero on incomplete formulas,
    and then declare their result an ultimate truth.
    But of logical thinking is needed,
    earthlings!!!

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  • From Pentcho Valev@21:1/5 to All on Fri Aug 19 05:10:34 2022
    "Thus, the moving observer sees a wave possessing the same wavelength [...] but a different frequency [...] to that seen by the stationary observer." http://farside.ph.utexas.edu/teaching/315/Waveshtml/node41.html

    This, in accordance with the formula (frequency)=(speed of light)/(wavelength), entails that the speed of light varies with the speed of the observer as posited by Newton's theory:

    "Vo is the velocity of an observer moving towards the source. This velocity is independent of the motion of the source. Hence, the velocity of waves relative to the observer is c + Vo. [...] The motion of an observer does not alter the wavelength. The
    increase in frequency is a result of the observer encountering more wavelengths in a given time." http://a-levelphysicstutor.com/wav-doppler.php

    The constancy of the wavelength of light is not restricted to this particular scenario. Actually, the wavelength of light is invariable in any other scenario - Doppler moving emitter, gravitational redshift, Hubble redshift.

    See more: https://twitter.com/pentcho_valev

    Pentcho Valev

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  • From Lou@21:1/5 to Jan Panteltje on Fri Aug 19 04:42:24 2022
    On Friday, 19 August 2022 at 11:51:39 UTC+1, Jan Panteltje wrote:
    On a sunny day (Fri, 19 Aug 2022 02:04:27 -0700 (PDT)) it happened Lou
    <noel wrote
    Other erroneous =E2=80=9Cexamples=E2=80=9D of the particle nature of light include
    experiments
    like grangier coincidence and the QT eraser experiments.
    Grangier experimental results are better peeled by wave emr being >quantifies at the detectors( QT cannot explain some of the results and >pretends their failure of model are due to unexplained residuals)
    And the QT eraser experiments are consistent with wave only light
    being polarised at different angles at the detectors. In fact Kim et al >completely ignores polarisation in his analysis. Odd, considering how >polarisation is such an important fundamental aspect of light.

    Feynman unwittingly implies that VARIABLE wavelength of light https://youtube.com/watch?v=3DxsVxC_NR64M
    is an unrealistic wave-based concept. In Einstein-free
    physics the wavelength of light will be nothing more than an invariable >proportionality coefficient in the formula

    (frequency) =3D (speed of light)/(wavelength)

    By the way, "light is made of particles" also implies variable speed of light
    as posited by Newton's theory:

    "Moreover, if light consists of particles, as Einstein had suggested in his
    paper submitted just thirteen weeks before this one, the second principle >seems absurd: A stone thrown from a speeding train can do far more damage >than one thrown from a train at rest; the speed of the particle is not independent
    of the motion of the object emitting it. And if we take light to consist >of particles and assume that these particles obey Newton's laws, they
    will conform to Newtonian relativity and thus automatically account for the >null result of the Michelson-Morley experiment without recourse to contracting
    lengths, local time, or Lorentz transformations. Yet, as we have seen, >Einstein resisted the temptation to account for the null result in terms >of particles of light and simple, familiar Newtonian ideas, and introduced >as his second postulate something that was more or less obvious when thought
    of in terms of waves in an ether." Banesh Hoffmann, Relativity and Its Roots,
    p.92 https://www.amazon.com/Relativity-Its-Roots-Banesh-Hoffmann/dp/0486406768
    Take a step back.
    Einstein never managed to unite gravity with the other forces
    There is an old theory (google "Le Sage theory of gravity wikipedia")
    Definitely gravity is push not pull. And LeSage is the best way to model gravity.
    where gravity is caused by very fast particles flying in all directions. already back in the 5 inch or there about floppy days I wrote a simulation and to my surprise it worked.
    If now electromagnetic radiation is just a state of the Le Sage particles, and Le Sage particles move at light speed,
    then we get
    gravity propagates at the speed of light.
    And light speed does not have to be the same everywhere
    Question for me was always 'where do Le Sage particles come from'
    The answer is...Waves!! Yes. Because if you use an EMR wave Lesage model, you have all the evidence already seeing as we know emr exists. And we know
    from solar sails that emr exerts a pressure on atoms.
    So instead of particles it’s emr waves. And I’m sure your modelling will work as well.
    And waves work for LeSage where particles didn’t. Because one criticism of a particle LeSage gravity is what happens to the particles? Wouldnt the atom get heavier as it collects more particles?
    But with waves there is no problem. Because most emr waves from any one direction
    pass through the atom but a small percentage push the magnetic field of the atom ,
    creating the push and then re radiating that interaction as emr energy isotropically.
    Which is observed as the strong , weak and magnetic forces of the atom.
    That way no energy is stored( it all passes thru) but a small amount doesn’t pass
    straight thru but rather, interacts with atoms mag field and is reradiated in all directions.

    Maybe from black holes or our - or other big bangs... assuming there was a big bang, processes in stars?
    Wow then! now the universe is expanding ever faster!! Pushing itself apart.

    Most todays fishsicks is just parroted and you will not get published if you do not acknowledge
    how great Einstein was and how 'right' he was..
    One of Einsteins greatest lies was his supposed solution to Mercury Preccession. Total nonsense. He only really knew Mercuries preccession and found
    his r^2… formula worked. But it doesn’t work as well for the other planets. In fact a better solution to orbital preccession uses MY formula
    based on the assumption that gravity pull of a planet comes from its whole volume. Not it’s theoretical Center as incorrectly Newton pretended.
    Which means you calculate preccession from perihelion. Seeing as that’s
    when this effect is greatest. And my formula is:
    B)Preccessional advance in arcseconds= 1/(r+3R)^2

    Observed. GRT. B
    Mercury. 43.1 43.5 43.24
    Venus. 8.0 8.6 8.33
    Earth. 5.0 3.87 4.49
    Mars. *2.5 1.3 2.29
    ( Errors on Venus observed are 8.0 +-5.0)
    *It is also worth pointing out that usually reference say Mars’ “observed” is 1.3.
    This is actually a theoretical assumption. Erroneously assumed by the Einstein cult so as to be consistent with the incorrect prediction made by GRT.
    In fact it is commonly accepted that only Mercury, Earth and Venus orbits can be
    measured to any sufficient degree of accuracy. Not Mars or any of the other planets.
    What dishonest relativist revisionists fail to mention is that total of the best measured
    preccession of Mars, which includes any anomalous contribution,
    is 9.0arcseconds/Century.
    Of which *2.5* is an unattributable “uncertainty”. Not 1.3

    May take generations for a fresh view to be accepted.
    We need a MECHANISM, not just a silly mamamatical formula.
    In a Le Sage system there are no singularities as at one point all particles are intercepted.
    the mamaticians like to do a divide by zero on incomplete formulas,
    and then declare their result an ultimate truth.
    But of logical thinking is needed,
    earthlings!!!

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    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Lou@21:1/5 to Pentcho Valev on Fri Aug 19 06:13:59 2022
    On Friday, 19 August 2022 at 13:10:36 UTC+1, Pentcho Valev wrote:
    "Thus, the moving observer sees a wave possessing the same wavelength [...] but a different frequency [...] to that seen by the stationary observer." http://farside.ph.utexas.edu/teaching/315/Waveshtml/node41.html

    This, in accordance with the formula (frequency)=(speed of light)/(wavelength), entails that the speed of light varies with the speed of the observer as posited by Newton's theory:

    "Vo is the velocity of an observer moving towards the source. This velocity is independent of the motion of the source. Hence, the velocity of waves relative to the observer is c + Vo. [...] The motion of an observer does not alter the wavelength. The
    increase in frequency is a result of the observer encountering more wavelengths in a given time." http://a-levelphysicstutor.com/wav-doppler.php

    The constancy of the wavelength of light is not restricted to this particular scenario. Actually, the wavelength of light is invariable in any other scenario - Doppler moving emitter, gravitational redshift, Hubble redshift.

    Yes I agree with you here Pentcho. In the *source frame* the wavelength is always invariable
    But don’t forget...You, Eric Lerner and others suggest that to explain redshift, the wavelength of light
    IS Variable in the source frame. Because if we follow your logic then if as you say light slows down
    in the source frame as he and you seem to think...then it must follow that the wavelength also
    Has to decrease in the source frame. The farther from the source the light travels.
    Contrary to what you say above which is that it CANNOT change Length in the source frame.?
    Which is it? You say on the one hand wavelength is invariable but on the other hand to explain
    redshift...you say it IS VARIABLE?

    See more: https://twitter.com/pentcho_valev

    Pentcho Valev

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