• Re: 2N=E

    From joes@21:1/5 to All on Tue Oct 22 09:43:29 2024
    Am Mon, 21 Oct 2024 20:35:59 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 21.10.2024 14:41, joes wrote:
    Am Mon, 21 Oct 2024 11:59:00 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 21.10.2024 10:21, joes wrote:
    Am Mon, 21 Oct 2024 10:14:07 +0200 schrieb WM:

    If the range was complete, the image shows that the range was not
    complete.
    If the range really is complete, it needs to be infinite, so it can
    include the larger numbers.
    No. No set of numbers can include larger numbers.
    An infinite set can contain an m>n for every n in it.
    Yes, but all the numbers which the set contains are either complete and fixed, or they are variable such that with each request larger numbers
    can be creazed.
    "yes, but actually no" The numbers ARE fixed, there are just inf. many
    of them. The larger numbers have already all been "created".

    The latter case is called potential infinity. In case they are complete
    and fixed we can multiply them by 2 and find larger numbers.
    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to joes on Tue Oct 22 16:11:35 2024
    On 22.10.2024 11:43, joes wrote:
    Am Mon, 21 Oct 2024 20:35:59 +0200 schrieb WM:

    Yes, but all the numbers which the set contains are either complete and
    fixed, or they are variable such that with each request larger numbers
    can be created.
    "yes, but actually no" The numbers ARE fixed, there are just inf. many
    of them.

    All of them are multiplied by 2.

    The larger numbers have already all been "created".

    Not before multiplying them.

    Regards, WM

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  • From joes@21:1/5 to All on Tue Oct 22 15:03:16 2024
    Am Tue, 22 Oct 2024 16:11:35 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 22.10.2024 11:43, joes wrote:
    Am Mon, 21 Oct 2024 20:35:59 +0200 schrieb WM:

    Yes, but all the numbers which the set contains are either complete
    and fixed, or they are variable such that with each request larger
    numbers can be created.
    "yes, but actually no" The numbers ARE fixed, there are just inf. many
    of them.
    All of them are multiplied by 2.
    So what?

    The larger numbers have already all been "created".
    Not before multiplying them.
    No. We are taking the ACTUALLY infinite set, which most certainly
    also includes the even numbers.

    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to joes on Tue Oct 22 18:07:26 2024
    On 22.10.2024 17:03, joes wrote:
    Am Tue, 22 Oct 2024 16:11:35 +0200 schrieb WM:
    The numbers ARE fixed, there are just inf. many
    of them.
    All of them are multiplied by 2.
    So what?

    Important: _All_ numbers existing in the _invariable_ set.

    The larger numbers have already all been "created".
    Not before multiplying them.
    No. We are taking the ACTUALLY infinite set, which most certainly
    also includes the even numbers.

    Nevertheless, doubling creates larger numbers with no doubt. If no
    larger natural numbers are available, what could be the result?

    Regards, WM

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  • From joes@21:1/5 to All on Tue Oct 22 17:28:28 2024
    Am Tue, 22 Oct 2024 18:07:26 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 22.10.2024 17:03, joes wrote:
    Am Tue, 22 Oct 2024 16:11:35 +0200 schrieb WM:
    The numbers ARE fixed, there are just inf. many of them.
    All of them are multiplied by 2.
    Important: _All_ numbers existing in the _invariable_ set.
    SO WHAT

    The larger numbers have already all been "created".
    Not before multiplying them.
    No. We are taking the ACTUALLY infinite set, which most certainly also
    includes the even numbers.
    Nevertheless, doubling creates larger numbers with no doubt.
    Only larger than the one doubled.

    If no larger natural numbers are available, what could be the result?
    WDYM "available"?

    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

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  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Tue Oct 22 19:36:45 2024
    Am 22.10.2024 um 17:03 schrieb joes:
    Am Tue, 22 Oct 2024 16:11:35 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 22.10.2024 11:43, joes wrote:

    The larger numbers have already all been "created".

    Well, since we are talking about "actuall infinity", i.e. the infinit
    set of natural numbers here, '"been "created"' is rather "misleading"
    here (i.e. wrong).

    It's just a "simple fact" (in the context of set theory), that for all n
    e IN: 2*n e IN. ("simple fact" => a provable proposition).

    Of course this just "shows" that IN is ("actually") infite.

    Not before multiplying them.

    No. We are taking the ACTUALLY infinite set, which most certainly
    also includes the even numbers.

    Especially, since we consider the set of ALL natural numbers; and the
    natural numbers consist of ALL odd and ALL even natural numbers. :-)

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  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to All on Tue Oct 22 13:24:01 2024
    On 10/22/2024 10:11 AM, WM wrote:
    On 22.10.2024 11:43, joes wrote:
    Am Mon, 21 Oct 2024 20:35:59 +0200 schrieb WM:

    Yes, but
    all the numbers which the set contains
    are either complete and fixed, or
    they are variable such that
    with each request
    larger numbers can be created.

    "yes, but actually no"
    The numbers ARE fixed,
    there are just inf. many of them.

    All of them are multiplied by 2.

    The larger numbers have already all been "created".

    Not before multiplying them.

    "Creation" of these numbers
    is confusingly imagined to be
    creation of these numbers.

    These numbers are described by axioms.

    Claims (axioms) are made which are true of
    each of these numbers,
    and, in context, it is understood that
    that which the claims describe is
    that which we are talking about.

    No number starts or stops
    being described by those axioms.

    We often express
    being.described.by.those.axioms as
    existing --
    existing _in the domain of discourse_ seems apt.

    In that sense,
    no number starts or stops
    existing.
    No number enters or exits
    the domain of discourse those axioms describe.

    In this discussion,
    the numbers being.described.by.those.axioms
    == the numbers existing
    include, for each such number, double that number.

    The numbers and their doubles
    always were/will.be being.described.by.those.axioms
    always were/will.be existing.


    We cannot perform supertasks like
    counting infinitely.many.

    But we can _describe_ infinitely.many finitely,
    and finitely augment with not.first.false claims
    -- which, not.having any first.false, must be true.

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  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Tue Oct 22 19:42:07 2024
    Am 22.10.2024 um 19:28 schrieb joes:
    Am Tue, 22 Oct 2024 18:07:26 +0200 schrieb WM:

    If no larger natural numbers are available, what could be the result [of doubling a natural number]

    WDYM "available"?

    For WM IN has a largest element, it seems.

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to joes on Tue Oct 22 20:26:37 2024
    On 22.10.2024 19:28, joes wrote:
    Am Tue, 22 Oct 2024 18:07:26 +0200 schrieb WM:

    Nevertheless, doubling creates larger numbers with no doubt.
    Only larger than the one doubled.

    The set on the ordinal line is extended by a factor 2.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Jim Burns on Tue Oct 22 20:24:08 2024
    On 22.10.2024 19:24, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/22/2024 10:11 AM, WM wrote:

    The numbers ARE fixed,
    there are just inf. many of them.

    All of them are multiplied by 2.

    The larger numbers have already all been "created".

    Not before multiplying them.

    "Creation" of these numbers
    is confusingly imagined to be
    creation of these numbers.

    These numbers did not belong to the set when it was multiplied.

    These numbers are described by axioms.

    By axiom also all numbers of the set are present and available to be multiplied.

    Claims (axioms) are made which are true of
    each of these numbers,

    which can be multiplied.

    No number starts or stops
    being described by those axioms.

    The set is complete when its numbers are multiplied.

    In that sense,
    no number starts or stops
    existing.
    No number enters or exits
    the domain of discourse those axioms describe.

    All numbers which are described are in the set when being multiplied.

    In this discussion,
    the numbers being.described.by.those.axioms
    == the numbers existing
    include, for each such number, double that number.

    Of course. But all these are multiplied.

    The numbers and their doubles
    always were/will.be being.described.by.those.axioms
    always were/will.be existing.

    They are existing when multiplied.

    We cannot perform supertasks like
    counting infinitely.many.

    But we can use all existing numbers, for instance for mappings.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Moebius on Tue Oct 22 20:31:13 2024
    On 22.10.2024 19:36, Moebius wrote:
    Am 22.10.2024 um 17:03 schrieb joes:
    Am Tue, 22 Oct 2024 16:11:35 +0200 schrieb WM:

    It's just a "simple fact" (in the context of set theory), that for all n
    e IN: 2*n e IN. ("simple fact" => a provable proposition).

    Not before multiplying them.

    No. We are taking the ACTUALLY infinite set, which most certainly
    also includes the even numbers.

    All its numbers are multiplied.

    Especially, since we consider the set of ALL natural numbers; and the
    natural numbers consist of ALL odd and ALL even natural numbers. :-)

    If so, then the numbers not existing before doubling must be non-natural.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Tue Oct 22 20:31:19 2024
    Am 22.10.2024 um 17:03 schrieb joes:
    Am Tue, 22 Oct 2024 16:11:35 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 22.10.2024 11:43, joes wrote:

    The larger numbers have already all been "created".

    Well, since we are talking about "actual infinity", i.e. the infinit set
    of natural numbers here, '"been "created"' is rather "misleading" here
    (i.e. wrong).

    It's just a "simple fact" (in the context of set theory), that for all n
    e IN: 2*n e IN. ("simple fact" => a provable proposition).

    Of course this just "shows" that IN is ("actually") infite.

    Not before multiplying them.

    No. We are taking the ACTUALLY infinite set, which most certainly
    also includes the even numbers.

    Especially, since we consider the set of ALL natural numbers; and the
    natural numbers consist of ALL odd and ALL even natural numbers. :-)

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  • From joes@21:1/5 to All on Tue Oct 22 18:38:33 2024
    Am Tue, 22 Oct 2024 20:31:13 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 22.10.2024 19:36, Moebius wrote:
    Am 22.10.2024 um 17:03 schrieb joes:
    Am Tue, 22 Oct 2024 16:11:35 +0200 schrieb WM:

    It's just a "simple fact" (in the context of set theory), that for all
    n e IN: 2*n e IN. ("simple fact" => a provable proposition).

    Not before multiplying them.
    No. We are taking the ACTUALLY infinite set, which most certainly also
    includes the even numbers.
    All its numbers are multiplied.

    Especially, since we consider the set of ALL natural numbers; and the
    natural numbers consist of ALL odd and ALL even natural numbers. :-)
    If so, then the numbers not existing before doubling must be
    non-natural.
    There are no such numbers!

    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

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  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Tue Oct 22 20:33:29 2024
    Am 22.10.2024 um 17:03 schrieb joes:
    Am Tue, 22 Oct 2024 16:11:35 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 22.10.2024 11:43, joes wrote:

    The larger numbers have already all been "created".

    Well, since we are talking about "actual infinity", i.e. the infinite
    set of natural numbers here, '"been "created"' is rather "misleading"
    (i.e. wrong) in this context.

    It's just a "simple fact" (in the context of set theory), that for all n
    e IN: 2*n e IN. ("simple fact" => a provable proposition).

    Of course, this just "shows" that IN is ("actually") infinite.

    Not before multiplying them.

    No. We are taking the ACTUALLY infinite set, which most certainly
    also includes the even numbers.

    Especially, since we consider the set of ALL natural numbers; and the
    natural numbers consist of ALL odd and ALL even natural numbers. :-)

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Moebius on Tue Oct 22 22:27:11 2024
    On 22.10.2024 20:33, Moebius wrote:

    Of course, this just "shows" that IN is ("actually") infinite.

    Fine. Just this set is accepted and all its elements are doubled.

    Especially, since we consider the set of ALL natural numbers; and the
    natural numbers consist of ALL odd and ALL even natural numbers.

    We assume that this set exists and double its numbers. Not only natural
    numbers can be created because all have been multiplied.

    Regards, WM

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  • From joes@21:1/5 to All on Tue Oct 22 20:17:43 2024
    Am Tue, 22 Oct 2024 20:24:08 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 22.10.2024 19:24, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/22/2024 10:11 AM, WM wrote:

    The numbers ARE fixed, there are just inf. many of them.
    All of them are multiplied by 2.

    The larger numbers have already all been "created".
    Not before multiplying them.
    "Creation" of these numbers is confusingly imagined to be creation of
    these numbers.
    These numbers did not belong to the set when it was multiplied.
    They should, otherwise the set was finite.

    These numbers are described by axioms.
    By axiom also all numbers of the set are present and available to be multiplied.
    Claims (axioms) are made which are true of each of these numbers,
    which can be multiplied.
    No number starts or stops being described by those axioms.
    The set is complete when its numbers are multiplied.
    In that sense,
    no number starts or stops existing.
    No number enters or exits the domain of discourse those axioms
    describe.
    All numbers which are described are in the set when being multiplied.
    That includes the so-called "doubles", i.e. the even numbers.

    the numbers being.described.by.those.axioms == the numbers existing
    include, for each such number, double that number.
    Of course. But all these are multiplied.
    Those doubles of doubles are in the original set as well.

    The numbers and their doubles always were/will.be
    being.described.by.those.axioms always were/will.be existing.
    They are existing when multiplied.
    As are the doubles. N is not limited.

    We cannot perform supertasks like counting infinitely.many.
    But we can use all existing numbers, for instance for mappings.
    Then we get no new numbers.

    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to joes on Tue Oct 22 22:29:52 2024
    On 22.10.2024 20:38, joes wrote:
    Am Tue, 22 Oct 2024 20:31:13 +0200 schrieb WM:

    All its numbers are multiplied.

    Especially, since we consider the set of ALL natural numbers; and the
    natural numbers consist of ALL odd and ALL even natural numbers. :-)
    If so, then the numbers not existing before doubling must be
    non-natural.
    There are no such numbers!

    Call the result what you like.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Wed Oct 23 00:07:26 2024
    Am 23.10.2024 um 00:04 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:
    On 10/22/2024 1:29 PM, WM wrote:
    On 22.10.2024 20:38, joes wrote:
    Am Tue, 22 Oct 2024 20:31:13 +0200 schrieb WM:

    All its numbers are multiplied.

    Especially, since we consider the set of ALL natural numbers; and the >>>>> natural numbers consist of ALL odd and ALL even natural numbers. :-)
    If so, then the numbers not existing before doubling must be
    non-natural.
    There are no such numbers!

    Call the result what you like.

    2 * any_natural_number = a_natural_number

    Got it! God damn. wow.

    Yeah. Dumb as shit.

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  • From joes@21:1/5 to All on Wed Oct 23 06:57:57 2024
    Am Tue, 22 Oct 2024 22:29:52 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 22.10.2024 20:38, joes wrote:
    Am Tue, 22 Oct 2024 20:31:13 +0200 schrieb WM:

    Especially, since we consider the set of ALL natural numbers; and the
    natural numbers consist of ALL odd and ALL even natural numbers. :-)
    If so, then the numbers not existing before doubling must be
    non-natural.
    There are no such numbers!
    Call the result what you like.
    I call them the even numbers.

    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Wed Oct 23 07:37:22 2024
    On 10/22/24 10:11 AM, WM wrote:
    On 22.10.2024 11:43, joes wrote:
    Am Mon, 21 Oct 2024 20:35:59 +0200 schrieb WM:

    Yes, but all the numbers which the set contains are either complete and
    fixed, or they are variable such that with each request larger numbers
    can be created.
    "yes, but actually no" The numbers ARE fixed, there are just inf. many
    of them.

    All of them are multiplied by 2.

    The larger numbers have already all been "created".

    Not before multiplying them.


    Then you didn't create them ALL.

    Your "actually infinity" just isn't actually infinite, and thus you are
    just lying to yourself, blowing your brain to smithereens.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to joes on Wed Oct 23 16:33:12 2024
    On 23.10.2024 08:57, joes wrote:
    Am Tue, 22 Oct 2024 22:29:52 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 22.10.2024 20:38, joes wrote:
    Am Tue, 22 Oct 2024 20:31:13 +0200 schrieb WM:

    Especially, since we consider the set of ALL natural numbers; and the >>>>> natural numbers consist of ALL odd and ALL even natural numbers. :-)
    If so, then the numbers not existing before doubling must be
    non-natural.
    There are no such numbers!
    Call the result what you like.
    I call them the even numbers.

    Right. Same with fractions. If you multiply all fractions between 0 and
    1 by 2, then you get even-numerator fractions, some of them greater than 1.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Wed Oct 23 20:03:48 2024
    On 23.10.2024 13:37, Richard Damon wrote:


    Your complete set of the Natural Numbers is not complete.

    I take what is given: the complete set of natural numbers. I double it
    an get, according to mathematics 2n > n greater numbers than were given
    to me.

    Regards, WM

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  • From joes@21:1/5 to All on Wed Oct 23 18:59:03 2024
    Am Wed, 23 Oct 2024 20:03:48 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 23.10.2024 13:37, Richard Damon wrote:

    Your complete set of the Natural Numbers is not complete.
    I take what is given: the complete set of natural numbers. I double it
    an get, according to mathematics 2n > n greater numbers than were given
    to me.
    Every single number is greater than its original, but for every number
    in the mapped set there is a greater one in the former set.

    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Wed Oct 23 23:06:49 2024
    On 10/23/24 2:03 PM, WM wrote:
    On 23.10.2024 13:37, Richard Damon wrote:


    Your complete set of the Natural Numbers is not complete.

    I take what is given: the complete set of natural numbers. I double it
    an get, according to mathematics 2n > n greater numbers than were given
    to me.

    Regards, WM


    So, your problem is you don't know what you were given, as the Natural
    Numbers don't have a highest end to go pass by the closed operations.

    You are just stuck in using FINITE logic on an INFINTE set and blowing
    you logic up into smithereens and showing you are too stupid to
    undetstand what has happened.

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to joes on Thu Oct 24 12:46:05 2024
    On 23.10.2024 20:59, joes wrote:
    Am Wed, 23 Oct 2024 20:03:48 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 23.10.2024 13:37, Richard Damon wrote:

    Your complete set of the Natural Numbers is not complete.
    I take what is given: the complete set of natural numbers. I double it
    an get, according to mathematics 2n > n greater numbers than were given
    to me.
    Every single number is greater than its original, but for every number
    in the mapped set there is a greater one in the former set.

    Impossible since all have been mapped, even the greater ones.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Thu Oct 24 07:43:34 2024
    On 10/24/24 6:46 AM, WM wrote:
    On 23.10.2024 20:59, joes wrote:
    Am Wed, 23 Oct 2024 20:03:48 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 23.10.2024 13:37, Richard Damon wrote:

    Your complete set of the Natural Numbers is not complete.
    I take what is given: the complete set of natural numbers. I double it
    an get, according to mathematics 2n > n greater numbers than were given
    to me.
    Every single number is greater than its original, but for every number
    in the mapped set there is a greater one in the former set.

    Impossible since all have been mapped, even the greater ones.

    Regards, WM



    So why can't you get the needed mapped value, since it is in the set.

    Your problem is your mind just rejects the very nature of infinity, and
    blows itself up when it tries to think of it.

    Infinity isn't just some impossibly big number that twice itself is
    bigger than itself, that is a property of the FINITE.

    You are just unable to understand the infinite, because you just refuse
    to let it be what it is.

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Thu Oct 24 13:53:57 2024
    On 24.10.2024 05:06, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 10/23/24 2:03 PM, WM wrote:
    On 23.10.2024 13:37, Richard Damon wrote:

    Your complete set of the Natural Numbers is not complete.

    I take what is given: the complete set of natural numbers. I double it
    an get, according to mathematics 2n > n greater numbers than were
    given to me.

    So, your problem is you don't know what you were given

    I know it, but that's not mandatory since I double all.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Thu Oct 24 14:02:15 2024
    On 24.10.2024 13:43, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 10/24/24 6:46 AM, WM wrote:
    On 23.10.2024 20:59, joes wrote:
    Am Wed, 23 Oct 2024 20:03:48 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 23.10.2024 13:37, Richard Damon wrote:

    Your complete set of the Natural Numbers is not complete.
    I take what is given: the complete set of natural numbers. I double it >>>> an get, according to mathematics 2n > n greater numbers than were given >>>> to me.
    Every single number is greater than its original, but for every number
    in the mapped set there is a greater one in the former set.

    Impossible since all have been mapped, even the greater ones.

    So why can't you get the needed mapped value, since it is in the set.

    It is dark and not a natural number.

    Infinity isn't just some impossibly big number that twice itself is
    bigger than itself, that is a property of the FINITE.

    That's a property of mathematics, of correct mathematics.

    You are just unable to understand the infinite, because you just refuse
    to let it be what it is.

    The infinite must adhere to correct mathematics. Otherwise it is only matheology, to be believed by believers who despise mathematics.

    Reards, WM

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  • From joes@21:1/5 to All on Thu Oct 24 12:10:11 2024
    Am Thu, 24 Oct 2024 12:46:05 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 23.10.2024 20:59, joes wrote:
    Am Wed, 23 Oct 2024 20:03:48 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 23.10.2024 13:37, Richard Damon wrote:

    Your complete set of the Natural Numbers is not complete.
    I take what is given: the complete set of natural numbers. I double it
    an get, according to mathematics 2n > n greater numbers than were
    given to me.
    Every single number is greater than its original, but for every number
    in the mapped set there is a greater one in the former set.
    Impossible since all have been mapped, even the greater ones.
    Yes, and those are mapped to even greater ones!

    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to joes on Thu Oct 24 15:49:48 2024
    On 24.10.2024 14:10, joes wrote:
    Am Thu, 24 Oct 2024 12:46:05 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 23.10.2024 20:59, joes wrote:
    Am Wed, 23 Oct 2024 20:03:48 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 23.10.2024 13:37, Richard Damon wrote:

    Your complete set of the Natural Numbers is not complete.
    I take what is given: the complete set of natural numbers. I double it >>>> an get, according to mathematics 2n > n greater numbers than were
    given to me.
    Every single number is greater than its original, but for every number
    in the mapped set there is a greater one in the former set.
    Impossible since all have been mapped, even the greater ones.
    Yes, and those are mapped to even greater ones!

    The possibility of always even greater ones in natural numbers proves
    potential infinity.

    The greater ones have not been doubled because doubling of a complete
    set creates a set covering a greater interval than covered before. (Half
    the density implies twice the extension.)

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to FromTheRafters on Thu Oct 24 15:42:55 2024
    On 24.10.2024 14:24, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM has brought this to us :

    The infinite must adhere to correct mathematics. Otherwise it is only
    matheology, to be believed by believers who despise mathematics.

    Sets don't change. If
    you want to double each element of the naturally ordered set of natural numbers you do it by creating another set with the naturally ordered
    doubled elements.

    {1,2,3,4,...}
    {2,4,6,8,...}

    These sets are the same |size|

    In fact, here "the same size" applies. The change of size between both
    sets is +/- 0. But since the first set contains all natural numbers, the
    second set contains larger numbers because 2 > n.

    your swapped Bob is
    *always* in the 'next' room since there is no 'last' room at the
    infinite hotel.

    But if all fractions can be counted, then there is a last state, namely
    when this is counting is complete.

    Scrooge McDuck gets richer and richer as he goes broke.

    He does never lose more money than he gets. Therefore he cannot lose all
    his money. *That* is dictated by logic.

    Regards, WM

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  • From joes@21:1/5 to All on Thu Oct 24 13:54:57 2024
    Am Thu, 24 Oct 2024 15:42:55 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 24.10.2024 14:24, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM has brought this to us :

    The infinite must adhere to correct mathematics. Otherwise it is only
    matheology, to be believed by believers who despise mathematics.
    Sets don't change. If you want to double each element of the naturally
    ordered set of natural numbers you do it by creating another set with
    the naturally ordered doubled elements.
    {1,2,3,4,...}
    {2,4,6,8,...}
    These sets are the same |size|
    In fact, here "the same size" applies. The change of size between both
    sets is +/- 0. But since the first set contains all natural numbers, the second set contains larger numbers because 2 > n.
    Please explain how you can count past omega.

    your swapped Bob is *always* in the 'next' room since there is no
    'last' room at the infinite hotel.
    But if all fractions can be counted, then there is a last state, namely
    when this is counting is complete.
    No, "countable" means "bijective to (possibly a subset of) the naturals",
    not that there is a last one. That would imply finiteness, but N is
    countably infinite.

    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

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  • From joes@21:1/5 to All on Thu Oct 24 13:59:52 2024
    Am Thu, 24 Oct 2024 15:49:48 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 24.10.2024 14:10, joes wrote:
    Am Thu, 24 Oct 2024 12:46:05 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 23.10.2024 20:59, joes wrote:
    Am Wed, 23 Oct 2024 20:03:48 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 23.10.2024 13:37, Richard Damon wrote:

    Your complete set of the Natural Numbers is not complete.
    I take what is given: the complete set of natural numbers. I double
    it an get, according to mathematics 2n > n greater numbers than were >>>>> given to me.
    Every single number is greater than its original, but for every
    number in the mapped set there is a greater one in the former set.
    Impossible since all have been mapped, even the greater ones.
    Yes, and those are mapped to even greater ones!
    The possibility of always even greater ones in natural numbers proves potential infinity.
    You have it backwards. Surely the "complete" set should not be missing
    those greater numbers that the "potential" set includes.

    The greater ones have not been doubled because doubling of a complete
    set creates a set covering a greater interval than covered before. (Half
    the density implies twice the extension.)
    They have also been doubled, along with their doubles. The powers of 2 and their multiples form a subset of the naturals. The "size" of this set
    is omega, and 2w=w, regardless of "reality".

    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

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  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to All on Thu Oct 24 10:05:37 2024
    On 10/22/2024 2:24 PM, WM wrote:
    On 22.10.2024 19:24, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/22/2024 10:11 AM, WM wrote:
    On 22.10.2024 11:43, joes wrote:

    The larger numbers have already
    all been "created".

    Not before multiplying them.

    "Creation" of these numbers
    is confusingly imagined to be
    creation of these numbers.

    These numbers did not belong to the set
    when it was multiplied.

    Any time and any place the set is a well.ordered.successored.non.0.predecessored
    set, each in the set has its double in the set.

    The all.the.doubles _claim_
    follows the
    well.ordered.successored.non.0.predecessored
    claim not.first.falsely,
    so it can't be false.

    These numbers are described by axioms.

    By axiom also
    all numbers of the set are present and
    available to be multiplied.

    And their products
    ( i×(j+1)=(i×j)+i, i+(j+1)=(i+j)+1, i≠j⇒i+1≠j+1 )
    are in the
    well.ordered.successored.non.0.predecessored
    set.

    The numbers and their doubles
    always were/will.be being.described.by.those.axioms
    always were/will.be existing.

    They are existing when multiplied.

    They are in the
    well.ordered.successored.non.0.predecessored
    set.

    We cannot perform supertasks like
    counting infinitely.many.

    But we can use all existing numbers,
    for instance for mappings.

    We accept subsets of all triples of set.elements.
    Do you accept them, too?

    There is a set '×' of all ⟨i,j,k⟩ such that
    i,j,k are in the
    well.ordered.successored.non.0.predecessored
    set and i×j=k

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to joes on Thu Oct 24 16:24:20 2024
    On 24.10.2024 15:59, joes wrote:
    Am Thu, 24 Oct 2024 15:49:48 +0200 schrieb WM:

    The possibility of always even greater ones in natural numbers proves
    potential infinity.
    You have it backwards. Surely the "complete" set should not be missing
    those greater numbers that the "potential" set includes.

    The potentially infinite set does not include them. Then they would be
    doubled too.

    The greater ones have not been doubled because doubling of a complete
    set creates a set covering a greater interval than covered before. (Half
    the density implies twice the extension.)
    They have also been doubled, along with their doubles. The powers of 2 and their multiples form a subset of the naturals. The "size" of this set
    is omega, and 2w=w, regardless of "reality".

    The complete set covers an interval. When its density is reduced its
    extension is increased.

    Regards, WM


    Regards, WM


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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Jim Burns on Thu Oct 24 16:29:26 2024
    On 24.10.2024 16:05, Jim Burns wrote:

    The all.the.doubles _claim_
    follows the
    well.ordered.successored.non.0.predecessored
    claim not.first.falsely,
    so it can't be false.

    It is false. The set, when existing completely, covers an interval,
    namely (0, ω). When its density is halved while the number of elements
    is constant, then its extension is doubled.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to joes on Thu Oct 24 16:17:38 2024
    On 24.10.2024 15:54, joes wrote:
    Am Thu, 24 Oct 2024 15:42:55 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 24.10.2024 14:24, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM has brought this to us :

    The infinite must adhere to correct mathematics. Otherwise it is only
    matheology, to be believed by believers who despise mathematics.
    Sets don't change. If you want to double each element of the naturally
    ordered set of natural numbers you do it by creating another set with
    the naturally ordered doubled elements.
    {1,2,3,4,...}
    {2,4,6,8,...}
    These sets are the same |size|
    In fact, here "the same size" applies. The change of size between both
    sets is +/- 0. But since the first set contains all natural numbers, the
    second set contains larger numbers because 2n > n.
    Please explain how you can count past omega.

    I don't. The required steps are dark. But if the set ℕ is complete, then
    it covers a domain at the ordinal axis. If its density is reduced, then
    its extension is increased.

    your swapped Bob is *always* in the 'next' room since there is no
    'last' room at the infinite hotel.
    But if all fractions can be counted, then there is a last state, namely
    when this is counting is complete.
    No, "countable" means "bijective to (possibly a subset of) the naturals",
    not that there is a last one. That would imply finiteness, but N is
    countably infinite.

    We can set up a sequence of sets where in every set one one fractions is indexed. Either by Cantor's original setup

    {1/1}
    {1/1, 1/2,}
    {1/1, 1/2, 2/1}
    {1/1, 1/2, 2/1, 1/3}
    {1/1, 1/2, 2/1, 1/3, 2/2}
    ...

    or in my way

    XOOO... XXOO... XXOO... XXXO... ...
    XOOO... OOOO... XOOO... XOOO... ...
    XOOO... XOOO... OOOO... OOOO... ...
    XOOO... XOOO... XOOO... OOOO... ...
    ....................................

    Only if all fractions have been counted, all fractions have been
    counted. That means that the sequence is complete.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Thu Oct 24 16:27:18 2024
    Am 24.10.2024 um 15:54 schrieb joes:
    Am Thu, 24 Oct 2024 15:42:55 +0200 schrieb WM:

    But if all fractions can be counted, then there is a [final] state,

    though not a last unit fraction

    namely when this counting is complete.

    Mückenheim faselt hier wieder von einem Supertask, den bekanntlich nur
    Chuck Norris zu vollbringen im Stande ist. (Remember: Chuck Norris
    counted to infinity - twice.)

    [...] "countable" means "bijective to (possibly a subset of) the naturals", not that there is a last one. That would imply finiteness, but N is
    countably infinite.

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  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Thu Oct 24 16:32:20 2024
    Am 24.10.2024 um 15:59 schrieb joes:
    Am Thu, 24 Oct 2024 15:49:48 +0200 schrieb WM:

    The [fact] of always even greater ones in [the set of] natural numbers proves
    potential infinity.

    Nonsense. It proves _actual_ infinity.

    You have it backwards. Surely the "complete" set should not be missing
    those greater [natural] numbers [...]

    Indeed.

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  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Thu Oct 24 16:37:53 2024
    Am 24.10.2024 um 16:32 schrieb Moebius:
    Am 24.10.2024 um 15:59 schrieb joes:
    Am Thu, 24 Oct 2024 15:49:48 +0200 schrieb WM:

    The [fact] of always even greater ones in [the set of] natural
    numbers proves
    potential infinity.

    Nonsense. It proves _actual_ infinity.

    Hint: For any nonempty set of natural numbers M:

    M is infinite iff for each and every element m in M there's an element m' in M such that m' > m.

    (Note that sets don't change.)

    You have it backwards. Surely the "complete" set should not be missing
    those greater [natural] numbers [...]

    Indeed.

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  • From joes@21:1/5 to All on Thu Oct 24 15:22:09 2024
    Am Thu, 24 Oct 2024 16:17:38 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 24.10.2024 15:54, joes wrote:
    Am Thu, 24 Oct 2024 15:42:55 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 24.10.2024 14:24, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM has brought this to us :

    The infinite must adhere to correct mathematics. Otherwise it is
    only matheology, to be believed by believers who despise
    mathematics.
    Sets don't change. If you want to double each element of the
    naturally ordered set of natural numbers you do it by creating
    another set with the naturally ordered doubled elements.
    {1,2,3,4,...}
    {2,4,6,8,...}
    These sets are the same |size|
    In fact, here "the same size" applies. The change of size between both
    sets is +/- 0. But since the first set contains all natural numbers,
    the second set contains larger numbers because 2n > n.
    Please explain how you can count past omega.
    I don't. The required steps are dark. But if the set ℕ is complete, then
    it covers a domain at the ordinal axis. If its density is reduced, then
    its extension is increased.
    If you don't even reach omega, you can forget about larger numbers.
    The naturals, evens, and powers of 2 all only go up to omega.

    your swapped Bob is *always* in the 'next' room since there is no
    'last' room at the infinite hotel.
    But if all fractions can be counted, then there is a last state,
    namely when this is counting is complete.
    No, "countable" means "bijective to (possibly a subset of) the
    naturals",
    not that there is a last one. That would imply finiteness, but N is
    countably infinite.
    We can set up a sequence of sets where in every set one one fractions is indexed.
    No element of the sequence indexes all.
    Only if all fractions have been counted, all fractions have been
    counted. That means that the sequence is complete.
    And infinite.

    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Moebius on Thu Oct 24 17:27:58 2024
    On 24.10.2024 16:37, Moebius wrote:

    Hint: For any nonempty set of natural numbers M:

             M is infinite iff for each and every element m in M there's an
    element m' in M such that m' > m.

    (Note that sets don't change.)

    Important! If all those numbers are doubled, then their density is
    halved, their number remains constant, and their interval is doubled.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to joes on Thu Oct 24 17:43:17 2024
    On 24.10.2024 17:22, joes wrote:
    Am Thu, 24 Oct 2024 16:17:38 +0200 schrieb WM:

    if the set ℕ is complete, then
    it covers a domain at the ordinal axis. If its density is reduced, then
    its extension is increased.

    If you don't even reach omega, you can forget about larger numbers.

    There are more things in heaven and earth, joes, than can be counted.
    But they can be proven by applying mathematics.

    The naturals, evens, and powers of 2 all only go up to omega.

    And they all are doubled! If we apply ℕ u {ω} even ω is doubled.

    Remember the old truth from physics: Halving the density at constant
    mass and temperature doubles the volume.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to FromTheRafters on Thu Oct 24 21:03:12 2024
    On 24.10.2024 19:40, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM has brought this to us :
    On 24.10.2024 14:24, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM has brought this to us :

    The infinite must adhere to correct mathematics. Otherwise it is
    only matheology, to be believed by believers who despise mathematics.

    Sets don't change. If you want to double each element of the
    naturally ordered set of natural numbers you do it by creating
    another set with the naturally ordered doubled elements.

    {1,2,3,4,...}
    {2,4,6,8,...}

    These sets are the same |size|

    In fact, here "the same size" applies. The change of size between both
    sets is +/- 0. But since the first set contains all natural numbers,
    the second set contains larger numbers because 2n > n.

    So what?

    your swapped Bob is *always* in the 'next' room since there is no
    'last' room at the infinite hotel.

    But if all fractions can be counted, then there is a last state,
    namely when this is counting is complete.

    Countable does not mean counted.

    It means countable and is a lie if it cannot become counted.
    Scrooge McDuck gets richer and richer as he goes broke.

    He does never lose more money than he gets. Therefore he cannot lose
    all his money. *That* is dictated by logic.

    Neither can he get infinitely rich.

    Whatever. Set theory (Fraenkel) claims that he loses every dollar. For
    every dollar the day of its loss is known. That is true --- but only for definable dollars. Another indication for dark numbers.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Thu Oct 24 21:47:16 2024
    Am 24.10.2024 um 21:36 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:
    On 10/24/2024 6:42 AM, WM wrote:
    On 24.10.2024 14:24, FromTheRafters wrote:

    Scrooge McDuck gets richer and richer as he goes broke.

    Right.

    He does never lose more money than he gets.

    Right. Actually, he loses exactly the same "amount" of money he gets (got).

    Therefore he cannot lose all his money. *That* is

    nonsense, i.e. Mückenheim "logic" (=idiotic bullshit).

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  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Thu Oct 24 21:56:05 2024
    Am 24.10.2024 um 21:40 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:
    On 10/24/2024 12:03 PM, WM wrote:
    On 24.10.2024 19:40, FromTheRafters wrote:

    Countable does not mean [can be] counted.

    Right. (At least if we don't take into consideration Chuck Norris.)

    It means countable and is a lie if it cannot become counted.

    Well, Chuck Norris c a n count countable sets!

    Hint: Chuck Norris counted to infinity - twice!

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to All on Fri Oct 25 11:42:21 2024
    Am 24.10.2024 um 21:47 schrieb Moebius:
    Am 24.10.2024 um 21:36 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:
    On 10/24/2024 6:42 AM, WM wrote:
    On 24.10.2024 14:24, FromTheRafters wrote:

    Scrooge McDuck gets richer and richer as he goes broke.

    Right.

    He does never lose more money than he gets.

    Right. Actually, he loses exactly the same "amount" of money he gets (got).

    Wrong. He loses all but gets richer and richer and never goes bankrupt.
    This is incompatible with logic. It can only be explained by dark
    numbers. (Or potential infinity. But there he does not lose all.)

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Jim Burns on Fri Oct 25 18:59:53 2024
    On 25.10.2024 18:54, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/24/2024 10:29 AM, WM wrote:


    The set, when existing completely,
    covers an interval, namely (0, ω).
    When its density is halved
    while the number of elements is constant,
    then its extension is doubled.

    No.
    ⟨0,1,...,n-1,n,n+1,...,n+n-1,n+n⟩ is finite.

    The extension is doubled in this finite set here as well as in my
    infinite set.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to All on Fri Oct 25 12:54:03 2024
    On 10/24/2024 10:29 AM, WM wrote:
    On 24.10.2024 16:05, Jim Burns wrote:

    The all.the.doubles _claim_
    follows the
    well.ordered.successored.non.0.predecessored
    claim not.first.falsely,
    so it can't be false.

    It is false.

    ⎛ For finite sequence A
    ⎜ A = ⟨a₁,…,aₙ⟩
    ⎜⎛ either A holds first.A a₁ and last.A aₙ
    ⎜⎝ or else A = {}
    ⎜ and,
    ⎜ for each sub.sequence B ⊂ A
    ⎜ B = ⟨aₕ,aᵢ,aⱼ,…,aₓ⟩ = ⟨b₁,b₂,b₃,…,bₘ⟩
    ⎜⎛ either B holds first.B b₁ and last.B bₘ
    ⎝⎝ or else B = {}

    It is the more usual thing to be concerned with
    the finiteness of sequences of numbers.
    Here, though, we are concerned with
    the finiteness of sequences of 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺𝘀.

    Let 𝗔 = ⟨𝗮₁,…,𝗮ₙ⟩ be a finite sequence of 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺𝘀.
    For each sub.sequence 𝗕 = ⟨𝗯₁,…,𝗯ₘ⟩ ⊂ 𝗔
    ⎛ either 𝗕 holds first.𝗕 𝗯₁ and last.𝗕 𝗯ₘ
    ⎝ or 𝗕 = {}

    Consider the sub.sequence 𝗕 of false 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺𝘀.
    𝗕 is a sub.sequence of finite sequence 𝗔
    Either 𝗕 begins and ends, or 𝗕 is empty.


    Consider finite sequence 𝗔′ of 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺𝘀 such that
    each 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺 is not.first.false.
    Consider its sub.sequence 𝗕′ of false 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺𝘀:
    Either 𝗕′ begins and ends, or 𝗕′ is empty.
    If 𝗕′ begins, it begins at the first.false 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺.

    However,
    there is no first.false 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺 in 𝗔′
    since they are all not.first.false.
    There is no first.false 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺 in 𝗔′ or in 𝗕′
    The sub.sequence 𝗕′ of false 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺𝘀 doesn't begin.
    The sub.sequence 𝗕′ of false 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺𝘀 is empty.
    The original sequence 𝗔′ holds no false 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺𝘀.
    The original sequence 𝗔′ holds only true 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺𝘀.

    A finite sequence of 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺𝘀 such that
    each 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺 is not.first.false
    holds only true 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺𝘀.

    The all.the.doubles _claim_
    follows the
    well.ordered.successored.non.0.predecessored
    claim not.first.falsely,
    so it can't be false.

    It is false.

    A finite sequence of 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺𝘀 such that
    each 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺 is not.first.false
    holds only true 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺𝘀.

    The set, when existing completely,
    covers an interval, namely (0, ω).
    When its density is halved
    while the number of elements is constant,
    then its extension is doubled.

    No.
    ⟨0,1,...,n-1,n,n+1,...,n+n-1,n+n⟩ is finite.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to All on Fri Oct 25 14:30:58 2024
    On 10/25/2024 12:59 PM, WM wrote:
    On 25.10.2024 18:54, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/24/2024 10:29 AM, WM wrote:

    The set, when existing completely,
    covers an interval, namely (0, ω).
    When its density is halved
    while the number of elements is constant,
    then its extension is doubled.

    No.
    ⟨0,1,...,n-1,n,n+1,...,n+n-1,n+n⟩ is finite.

    The extension is doubled in this finite set here

    Irrelevant.

    ⟨0,1,...,n-1,n⟩ = ⟦0,n⟧
    ⟨0,1,...,n-1,n,n+1,...,n+n-1,n+n⟩ = ⟦0,n+n⟧

    The set,[...] namely (0, ω).

    ⟦0,n⟧ ≠ ⦅0,w⦆
    ⟦0,n+n⟧ ≠ ⦅0,w⦆

    as well as in my infinite set.

    No.
    ⟦0,n⟧ ⊆ ⟦0,w⦆ ⇔
    ⟦0,n+n⟧ ⊆ ⟦0,w⦆

    'Infinite' does not mean
    what you (WM) want it to mean.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Jim Burns on Fri Oct 25 21:07:51 2024
    On 25.10.2024 20:30, Jim Burns wrote:

    'Infinite' does not mean
    what you (WM) want it to mean.

    Your unfounded claims are irrelevant. Relevant are only provable
    mathematical facts:
    When the density is halved the covered interval is doubled.
    Lossless exchanges do never lose the exchanged.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to All on Fri Oct 25 19:18:20 2024
    On 10/25/2024 3:07 PM, WM wrote:
    On 25.10.2024 20:30, Jim Burns wrote:

    'Infinite' does not mean
    what you (WM) want it to mean.

    Your unfounded claims are irrelevant.

    E pur si muove!
    Not.looking at proofs doesn't disappear them.

    Relevant are only provable mathematical facts:

    Provable:
    ⟦0,n⟧ ⊂ ⟦0,ω⦆ ⇔ ⟦0,n+n⟧ ⊂ ⟦0,ω⦆

    When the density is halved the covered interval is doubled.

    Provable:
    2× : ℕ → 𝔼 : one.to.one
    𝔼 = 2×(ℕ) ⊂ ℕ
    ω = lub.ℕ = lub.𝔼

    Lossless exchanges do never lose the exchanged.

    Provable:
    |𝔼| = |ℕ\𝔼| = |ℕ|

    'Infinite' does not mean
    what you (WM) want it to mean.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Sat Oct 26 02:54:28 2024
    Am 24.10.2024 um 16:37 schrieb Moebius:
    Am 24.10.2024 um 16:32 schrieb Moebius:
    Am 24.10.2024 um 15:59 schrieb joes:
    Am Thu, 24 Oct 2024 15:49:48 +0200 schrieb WM:

    The [fact] of always even greater ones in [the set of] natural
    numbers proves
    potential infinity.

    Nonsense. It proves _actual_ infinity.

    Hint: For any nonempty set of natural numbers M:

             M is infinite iff for each and every element m in M there's an
    element m' in M such that m' > m.

    (Note that sets don't change.)

    The following approach concerning "|-symbols" might be considered a "representation" of "potential infinity":

    Rule 1: We may construct the |-symbol |.

    Rule 2: Given any |-symbol we may construct an |-symbol
    consisting of the given |-symbol followed by |.

    Rule 3: All |-symbols have to be constructed by applying rule 1
    and rule 2 (finitely many times).

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Sat Oct 26 02:51:31 2024
    Am 24.10.2024 um 16:37 schrieb Moebius:
    Am 24.10.2024 um 16:32 schrieb Moebius:
    Am 24.10.2024 um 15:59 schrieb joes:
    Am Thu, 24 Oct 2024 15:49:48 +0200 schrieb WM:

    The [fact] of always even greater ones in [the set of] natural
    numbers proves
    potential infinity.

    Nonsense. It proves _actual_ infinity.

    Hint: For any nonempty set of natural numbers M:

             M is infinite iff for each and every element m in M there's an
    element m' in M such that m' > m.

    (Note that sets don't change.)

    The following approach concerning "|-symbols" might be considered a "representation" of "potential infinity":

    Rule 1: We may construct the |-symbol |

    Rule 2: Given any |-symbol we may construct an |-symbol
    consisting of the given |-symbol followed by |.

    Rule 3: All |-symbols have to be constructed by applying rule 1
    and rule 2 (finitely many times).

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to Moebius on Sat Oct 26 08:18:04 2024
    On 10/25/2024 8:54 PM, Moebius wrote:
    Am 24.10.2024 um 16:37 schrieb Moebius:
    Am 24.10.2024 um 16:32 schrieb Moebius:
    Am 24.10.2024 um 15:59 schrieb joes:

    [...]

    Nonsense. It proves _actual_ infinity.

    Hint:
    For any nonempty set of natural numbers M:
    M is infinite iff
    for each and every element m in M
    there's an element m' in M such that
    m' > m.

    (Note that sets don't change.)

    The following approach concerning "|-symbols"
    might be considered
    a "representation" of "potential infinity":

    It seems to me that
    we could also call |-symbols
    numerals in base |

    Rule 1:
    We may construct the |-symbol |.

    Rule 2:
    Given any |-symbol
    we may construct an |-symbol consisting of
    the given |-symbol followed by |.

    Rule 3:
    All |-symbols have to be constructed by
    applying rule 1 and rule 2
    (finitely many times).

    It is a bare fact that _we will not_
    apply rules 1 and 2 more than finitely.many times,
    since we are finite beings.

    What is it to be finite or to be infinite?
    Answering that has turned out to be more interesting
    and more difficult than a first glance might suggest.

    It also seems to me (without reading more)
    that the question moves the discussion
    from potential infinity to actual infinity.

    I'm going to abuse the terms a little
    and use 'potentially.finite' to refer to
    things finite as a consequence of
    the bare fact of our finitude.
    Rules 1 and 2 alone describe
    potentially.finite |-symbols.

    What is a |-symbol?
    |-instances in linear (trichotomous,transitive) order.
    First and last |-instances.
    For each split of the |-symbol,
    a last |-instance before and a first after.

    We've clarified what 'finitely.many' means,
    and now I think a bit more abuse is called for,
    and those are actually finite |-symbols.

    With the actually finite, we get as a package deal
    the actually infinite,
    the not.actually.finite, such as _all_ the |-symbols.

    We _don't_ get the potentially infinite,
    in my abusive sense,
    not for logical reasons,
    but because of the bare fact of our finitude.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Jim Burns on Sat Oct 26 17:55:52 2024
    On 26.10.2024 01:18, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/25/2024 3:07 PM, WM wrote:

    Relevant are only provable mathematical facts:

    Provable:
    ⟦0,n⟧ ⊂ ⟦0,ω⦆  ⇔  ⟦0,n+n⟧ ⊂ ⟦0,ω⦆

    True for all natnumbers you can conceive of.

    When the density is halved the covered interval is doubled.

    Provable:
    2× : ℕ → 𝔼 : one.to.one
    𝔼 = 2×(ℕ) ⊂ ℕ

    Only for natnumbers you can conceive of.

    Lossless exchanges do never lose the exchanged.

    Provable:
    |𝔼| = |ℕ\𝔼| = |ℕ|

    Only for natnumbers which have almost all natnumbers as successors.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to All on Mon Oct 28 08:23:08 2024
    On 10/26/2024 11:55 AM, WM wrote:
    On 26.10.2024 01:18, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/25/2024 3:07 PM, WM wrote:

    Relevant are only provable mathematical facts:

    Provable:
    ⟦0,n⟧ ⊂ ⟦0,ω⦆  ⇔  ⟦0,n+n⟧ ⊂ ⟦0,ω⦆

    True for all natnumbers you can conceive of.

    True for all finite ordinal which are finite ordinals.
    What you can conceive of is irrelevant to that.

    A finite ordinal is predecessored or 0 and
    each of its priors is predecessored or 0.

    An ordinal is successored.
    A set of ordinals is minimummed or {}

    When the density is halved
    the covered interval is doubled.

    Provable:
    2× : ℕ → 𝔼 : one.to.one
    𝔼 = 2×(ℕ) ⊂ ℕ

    Only for natnumbers you can conceive of.

    True for all finite ordinal which are finite ordinals.
    What you can conceive of is irrelevant to that.

    Lossless exchanges do never lose the exchanged.

    Provable:
    |𝔼| = |ℕ\𝔼| = |ℕ|

    Only for natnumbers which have
    almost all natnumbers as successors.

    'Infinite' does not mean
    what you want it to mean.

    Each finite ordinal has
    almost all finite ordinals as successors.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From joes@21:1/5 to All on Mon Oct 28 16:22:20 2024
    Am Thu, 24 Oct 2024 16:24:20 +0200 schrieb WM:
    On 24.10.2024 15:59, joes wrote:
    Am Thu, 24 Oct 2024 15:49:48 +0200 schrieb WM:

    The possibility of always even greater ones in natural numbers proves
    potential infinity.
    You have it backwards. Surely the "complete" set should not be missing
    those greater numbers that the "potential" set includes.
    The potentially infinite set does not include them. Then they would be doubled too.
    Exactly, they *are* doubled.

    The greater ones have not been doubled because doubling of a complete
    set creates a set covering a greater interval than covered before.
    (Half the density implies twice the extension.)
    They have also been doubled, along with their doubles. The powers of 2
    and their multiples form a subset of the naturals. The "size" of this
    set is omega, and 2w=w, regardless of "reality".
    The complete set covers an interval. When its density is reduced its extension is increased.
    The interval is and stays infinite.

    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Jim Burns on Mon Oct 28 21:01:05 2024
    On 28.10.2024 13:23, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/26/2024 11:55 AM, WM wrote:
    On 26.10.2024 01:18, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/25/2024 3:07 PM, WM wrote:

    Relevant are only provable mathematical facts:

    Provable:
    ⟦0,n⟧ ⊂ ⟦0,ω⦆  ⇔  ⟦0,n+n⟧ ⊂ ⟦0,ω⦆

    True for all natnumbers you can conceive of.

    True for all finite ordinal which are finite ordinals.

    Relevant is only that the density in the interval is halved, the number remains, the interval is doubled.
    Each finite ordinal has
    almost all finite ordinals as successors.

    Wrong since they all are finite ordinals. Proven by unit fractions.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to joes on Mon Oct 28 21:09:38 2024
    On 28.10.2024 17:22, joes wrote:
    Am Thu, 24 Oct 2024 16:24:20 +0200 schrieb WM:

    The complete set covers an interval. When its density is reduced its
    extension is increased.
    The interval is and stays infinite.

    No discussion possible since you do not accept arguments.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Tom Bola@21:1/5 to All on Mon Oct 28 22:15:10 2024
    Am 28.10.2024 21:09:38 WM schrieb:
    On 28.10.2024 17:22, joes wrote:
    Am Thu, 24 Oct 2024 16:24:20 +0200 schrieb WM:

    The complete set covers an interval. When its density is reduced its
    extension is increased.

    The interval is and stays infinite.

    No discussion possible since you do not accept arguments.

    @joes: p l e a s e, get that already!

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Mon Oct 28 23:29:28 2024
    Am 28.10.2024 um 22:15 schrieb Tom Bola:
    Am 28.10.2024 21:09:38 WM schrieb:

    No discussion possible since you do not accept arguments.

    @joes: p l e a s e, get that already!

    Agree. P l e a s e stop it now.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Mon Oct 28 23:23:20 2024
    Am 28.10.2024 um 22:00 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:
    On 10/28/2024 1:09 PM, WM wrote:
    On 28.10.2024 17:22, joes wrote:
    Am Thu, 24 Oct 2024 16:24:20 +0200 schrieb WM:

    The complete set covers an interval. When its density is reduced its
    extension is increased.

    The interval is and stays infinite.

    No discussion possible since you do not accept arguments.

    Ja, so wird's wohl sein, Mückenheim. joes (in contrast to you) does not
    accept arguments!!!

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Tue Oct 29 00:00:14 2024
    Am 28.10.2024 um 22:15 schrieb Tom Bola:
    Am 28.10.2024 21:09:38 WM schrieb:

    No discussion possible since you do not accept arguments.

    @joes: p l e a s e, get that already!

    So ist das mit Süchtigen. Es wirkt auf Außenstehende wohl auch wie eine
    Form des Masochismus. :-P

    (Sich auf den Kopf scheißen zu lassen, is fun!)

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Tue Oct 29 01:02:30 2024
    Am 28.10.2024 um 23:29 schrieb Moebius:
    Am 28.10.2024 um 22:15 schrieb Tom Bola:
    Am 28.10.2024 21:09:38 WM schrieb:

    No discussion possible since you do not accept arguments.

    @joes: p l e a s e,  get that already!

    Agree. P l e a s e stop it now.

    ICH habe es auch geschafft! :-P

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Mon Oct 28 20:21:23 2024
    On 10/28/24 4:09 PM, WM wrote:
    On 28.10.2024 17:22, joes wrote:
    Am Thu, 24 Oct 2024 16:24:20 +0200 schrieb WM:

    The complete set covers an interval. When its density is reduced its
    extension is increased.
    The interval is and stays infinite.

    No discussion possible since you do not accept arguments.

    Regards, WM



    Then why do you keep at it?

    Since you do not accept the facts.

    If your attitude is you are right and everyone else is wrong, even the mathematics that you think you are following (but aren't) then you might
    as well just go away as nobody matters.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to All on Tue Oct 29 13:19:56 2024
    On 10/28/2024 4:01 PM, WM wrote:
    On 28.10.2024 13:23, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/26/2024 11:55 AM, WM wrote:
    On 26.10.2024 01:18, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/25/2024 3:07 PM, WM wrote:

    Relevant are only provable mathematical facts:

    Provable:
    ⟦0,n⟧ ⊂ ⟦0,ω⦆  ⇔  ⟦0,n+n⟧ ⊂ ⟦0,ω⦆

    True for all natnumbers you can conceive of.

    True for all finite ordinal which are finite ordinals.

    Relevant is only that
    the density in the interval is halved,
    the number remains,
    the interval is doubled.

    For each finite ordinal n
    there is a larger finite double n+n

    For each finite double n+n
    there is a larger finite ordinal n+n+1

    The finite ordinal interval and
    the finite double interval are the same.

    'Infinite' does not mean what you want it to mean.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Jim Burns on Wed Oct 30 16:27:58 2024
    On 29.10.2024 18:19, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/28/2024 4:01 PM, WM wrote:

    Relevant is only that
    the density in the interval is halved,
    the number remains,
    the interval is doubled.

    For each finite ordinal n
    there is a larger finite double n+n

    For each finite double n+n
    there is a larger finite ordinal n+n+1

    The finite ordinal interval and
    the finite double interval are the same.

    'Infinite' does not mean what you want it to mean.

    I have no preference.

    If infinity is complete, the we can double all natural numbers with the
    result
    (0, ω)*2 = (0, ω*2). The some products are in the interval (ω, ω*2).
    Then your claim concerns only the elements of the potentially infinite collection of definable numbers.

    If infinity is only potential, then your claim concerns all numbers.
    Reason: When all existing numbers are doubled then larger numbers are
    created but those can be natural numbers because the multiplied first
    set was not complete.

    Note: It is impossible that all doubled numbers of an interval are
    elements of this interval. If someone claims this, then he is a fool.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to All on Wed Oct 30 12:52:29 2024
    On 10/30/2024 11:27 AM, WM wrote:
    On 29.10.2024 18:19, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/28/2024 4:01 PM, WM wrote:

    Relevant is only that
    the density in the interval is halved,
    the number remains,
    the interval is doubled.

    For each finite ordinal n
    there is a larger finite double n+n

    For each finite double n+n
    there is a larger finite ordinal n+n+1

    The finite ordinal interval and
    the finite double interval are the same.

    'Infinite' does not mean what you want it to mean.

    I have no preference.

    Your preferences lead you
    to treat ω is as though it is finite.

    If infinity is complete,
    the we can double all natural numbers with the result
    (0, ω)*2 = (0, ω*2).

    n ∈ [0,ω) ⇒
    ∃⟨0,1,...,n-1,n⟩ ⇒
    ∃⟨0,1,...,n-1,n,n+1,...,n+n-1,n+n⟩ ⇒
    n+n ∈ [0,ω)

    n+n ∈ [0,ω) ⇒
    ∃⟨0,1,...,n-1,n,n+1,...,n+n-1,n+n⟩ ⇒
    ∃⟨0,1,...,n-1,n⟩ ⇒
    n ∈ [0,ω)

    The some products are in the interval (ω, ω*2).

    ω is infinite.

    If you declare ω is finite, or
    if you declare claims requiring finite ω,
    ω does not become only finite.

    ω becomes both finite and infinite.
    ω becomes not.existing.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Jim Burns on Wed Oct 30 20:52:51 2024
    On 30.10.2024 17:52, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/30/2024 11:27 AM, WM wrote:

    If infinity is complete,
    the we can double all natural numbers with the result
    (0, ω)*2 = (0, ω*2).
    Then some products are in the interval (ω, ω*2).

    ω is infinite.

    Do all numbers between 0 and ω exist such that they can be doubled?

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to All on Wed Oct 30 19:49:34 2024
    On 10/30/2024 3:52 PM, WM wrote:
    On 30.10.2024 17:52, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/30/2024 11:27 AM, WM wrote:

    If infinity is complete,
    the we can double all natural numbers
    with the result
    (0, ω)*2 = (0, ω*2).

    n ∈ [0,ω) ⇒
    ∃⟨0,1,...,n-1,n⟩ ⇒
    ∃⟨0,1,...,n-1,n,n+1,...,n+n-1,n+n⟩ ⇒
    n+n ∈ [0,ω)

    n+n ∈ [0,ω) ⇒
    ∃⟨0,1,...,n-1,n,n+1,...,n+n-1,n+n⟩ ⇒
    ∃⟨0,1,...,n-1,n⟩ ⇒
    n ∈ [0,ω)

    Then some products are in the interval (ω, ω*2).

    ω is infinite.

    Do all numbers between 0 and ω exist such that
    they can be doubled?

    ∃⟨0,1,...,n-1,n,n+1,...,n+n-1,n+n⟩

    There is no n.sequence between 0 and ω
    without a n+n.sequence between 0 and ω.

    'Infinite' does not mean what you want it to mean.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Jim Burns on Thu Oct 31 09:17:56 2024
    On 31.10.2024 00:49, Jim Burns wrote:

    There is no n.sequence between 0 and ω
    without a n+n.sequence between 0 and ω.

    'Infinite' does not mean what you want it to mean.

    Then infinity means only an interval on the real line that can be
    extended by a factor 2 when _all_ its numbers (including all
    n+n-sequences) are doubled. Hilbert, Cantor, and others call that
    potential infinite.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Thu Oct 31 07:36:48 2024
    On 10/30/24 3:52 PM, WM wrote:
    On 30.10.2024 17:52, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/30/2024 11:27 AM, WM wrote:

    If infinity is complete,
    the we can double all natural numbers with the result
    (0, ω)*2 = (0, ω*2).
    Then some products are in the interval (ω, ω*2).

    ω is infinite.

    Do all numbers between 0 and ω exist such that they can be doubled?

    Regards, WM


    Between as in exclusive, YES, as that is just the set of the Natural
    Numbers (since that is the domain that defines omega).

    All Natural Numbers can be doubled and get a number that is in that set.

    If you include omega, then no, omega doubled is two omega, but the rest
    of the set doubles and stays in the set.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Thu Oct 31 18:36:56 2024
    On 31.10.2024 12:36, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 10/30/24 3:52 PM, WM wrote:

    Do all numbers between 0 and ω exist such that they can be doubled?

    All Natural Numbers can be doubled and get a number that is in that set.

    But some of them were not doubled.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to All on Thu Oct 31 14:07:50 2024
    On 10/31/2024 4:17 AM, WM wrote:
    On 31.10.2024 00:49, Jim Burns wrote:

    There is no n.sequence between 0 and ω
    without a n+n.sequence between 0 and ω.

    'Infinite' does not mean what you want it to mean.

    Then infinity means only

    'Infinite' means 'not finite'.

    A set is finite if countable.to from nothing,
    finite even if countable.to via dark.

    ω is first after all countable.to ordinals.

    If ω is countable.to,
    then
    ω+1 is countable.to and is not before ω

    ω is not.countable.to.

    If ω-1 is existing.and.countable.to
    then
    (ω-1)+1=ω is countable.to and
    (ω-1)+1+1=ω+1 is countable.to and not before ω

    ω-1 is not existing.and.countable.to

    If ω-1 is existing.and.not.countable.to
    then
    no countable.to are after ω or after ω-1 and
    ω-1 is firster.than.ω after all countable.to.

    ω-1 is not existing.and.not.countable.to

    ω-1 is not existing.
    ω is not.countable.to.

    Then infinity means only
    an interval on the real line that
    can be extended by a factor 2
    when _all_ its numbers
    (including all n+n sequences)
    are doubled.

    Any finite
    can be counted to, and
    can be counted to twice, and
    its double can be counted to and
    its double is finite.

    But what about the last finite?
    The last finite is gibberish.

    Anything countable.to is countable.past.
    Anything countable.past is not.last.countable.

    Hilbert, Cantor, and others
    call that potential infinite.

    Does it matter what it's called?
    It is what it is.

    A finite sequence of only
    true.or.not.first.false 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺𝘀
    holds a 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺 that,
    after all swaps,
    Bob is not in any visible or dark room
    which he has ever been in.

    We know that it is a true 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺
    without our being Chuck Norris, by
    examining those finitely.many 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺𝘀 and
    seeing that they are each true.or.not.first.false.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Jim Burns on Thu Oct 31 19:30:00 2024
    On 31.10.2024 19:07, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/31/2024 4:17 AM, WM wrote:
    On 31.10.2024 00:49, Jim Burns wrote:

    There is no n.sequence between 0 and ω
    without a n+n.sequence between 0 and ω.

    'Infinite' does not mean what you want it to mean.

    Then infinity means only

    'Infinite' means 'not finite'.

    Potentially infinite means finite but variable without bound.
    Actually infinite means a fixed quantity larger than every finite
    quantity. Die Zahl 0 ist größer als jede endliche Zahl [Cantor].

    Hilbert, Cantor, and others
    call that potential infinite.

    Does it matter what it's called?
    It is what it is.

    If it is only potentially, then Cantor's theory is wrong.

    A finite sequence of only
    true.or.not.first.false 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺𝘀
    holds a 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺 that,
    after all swaps,
    Bob is not in any visible or dark room
    which he has ever been in.

    He is not elsewhere either.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to All on Thu Oct 31 15:25:54 2024
    On 10/31/2024 2:30 PM, WM wrote:
    On 31.10.2024 19:07, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/31/2024 4:17 AM, WM wrote:
    On 31.10.2024 00:49, Jim Burns wrote:

    There is no n.sequence between 0 and ω
    without a n+n.sequence between 0 and ω.

    'Infinite' does not mean what you want it to mean.

    Then infinity means only

    'Infinite' means 'not finite'.

    Potentially infinite means
    finite but variable without bound.

    Our sets do not change.

    Changes can be _represented_ by a family of sets,
    such as the family {⅟ℕ∩(0,x]:x∈ℝ} of
    sets of unit.fractions between x and 0

    ⅟ℕ∩(0,x] "changes" as x "changes"
    but no point referred to by x changes.
    No set ⅟ℕ∩(0,x] changes.
    {⅟ℕ∩(0,x]:x∈ℝ} does not change.

    By using x to indefinitely refer to
    one of the points in ℝ,
    we find the power to speak correctly of
    each one of infinitely.many points in ℝ,
    even though we ourselves are finite.

    However,
    in order for us to use that power,
    sets must not change.

    We assemble finite sequences of claims
    out of only true.or.not.first.false claims.
    Those claims must be true even if
    they're uncheckable claims about infinitely.many.
    But if they're about sets.which.change
    that power falls apart.

    Therefore,
    our sets do not change.

    Actually infinite means
    a fixed quantity larger than every finite quantity.

    A finite set can be in an order such that
    each non.empty subset holds its least and greatest

    An infinite set is not finite,
    and cannot be ordered the way that a finite set can.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Jim Burns on Thu Oct 31 21:27:00 2024
    On 31.10.2024 20:25, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/31/2024 2:30 PM, WM wrote:
    On 31.10.2024 19:07, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/31/2024 4:17 AM, WM wrote:
    On 31.10.2024 00:49, Jim Burns wrote:

    There is no n.sequence between 0 and ω
    without a n+n.sequence between 0 and ω.

    'Infinite' does not mean what you want it to mean.

    Then infinity means only

    'Infinite' means 'not finite'.

    Potentially infinite means
    finite but variable without bound.

    Our sets do not change.

    Then:
    Multiplication of all infinitely many fractions of the open interval (0,
    1) results in some fractions in (1, 2).
    Multiplication of all infinitely many numbers of the open interval (0,
    ω) result in some numbers in (ω, ω*2).

    Reducing the density increases the interval.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From joes@21:1/5 to All on Thu Oct 31 21:03:49 2024
    Am Thu, 31 Oct 2024 18:36:56 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 31.10.2024 12:36, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 10/30/24 3:52 PM, WM wrote:

    Do all numbers between 0 and ω exist such that they can be doubled?
    I seriously doubt the sanity of your fictional world where some numbers
    don't exist.

    All Natural Numbers can be doubled and get a number that is in that
    set.
    But some of them were not doubled.
    I read "ALL naturals". Have you considered the inverse of your function
    that counts the UFs larger than its argument?

    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From joes@21:1/5 to All on Thu Oct 31 21:05:06 2024
    Am Thu, 31 Oct 2024 19:30:00 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 31.10.2024 19:07, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/31/2024 4:17 AM, WM wrote:
    On 31.10.2024 00:49, Jim Burns wrote:

    There is no n.sequence between 0 and ω without a n+n.sequence between >>>> 0 and ω.
    'Infinite' does not mean what you want it to mean.
    'Infinite' means 'not finite'.
    Potentially infinite means finite but variable without bound. Actually infinite means a fixed quantity larger than every finite quantity.
    Potentially infinite means "if you thought it was finite, it's larger
    than that". Actually infinite means "you can't pretend this one is
    finite".

    Hilbert, Cantor, and others call that potential infinite.
    Does it matter what it's called? It is what it is.
    If it is only potentially, then Cantor's theory is wrong.
    A finite sequence of only true.or.not.first.false 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺𝘀 holds a 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺
    that, after all swaps,
    Bob is not in any visible or dark room which he has ever been in.
    He is not elsewhere either.
    He is nowhere.

    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From joes@21:1/5 to All on Thu Oct 31 21:07:11 2024
    Am Thu, 31 Oct 2024 21:27:00 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 31.10.2024 20:25, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/31/2024 2:30 PM, WM wrote:
    On 31.10.2024 19:07, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/31/2024 4:17 AM, WM wrote:
    On 31.10.2024 00:49, Jim Burns wrote:

    There is no n.sequence between 0 and ω without a n+n.sequence
    between 0 and ω.
    'Infinite' does not mean what you want it to mean.
    'Infinite' means 'not finite'.
    Potentially infinite means finite but variable without bound.
    Our sets do not change.
    Then:
    Multiplication of all infinitely many numbers of the open interval (0,
    ω) result in some numbers in (ω, ω*2).
    Reducing the density increases the interval.
    All even numbers have a "half" that is natural.

    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Thu Oct 31 19:44:21 2024
    On 10/31/24 2:30 PM, WM wrote:
    On 31.10.2024 19:07, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/31/2024 4:17 AM, WM wrote:
    On 31.10.2024 00:49, Jim Burns wrote:

    There is no n.sequence between 0 and ω
    without a n+n.sequence between 0 and ω.

    'Infinite' does not mean what you want it to mean.

    Then infinity means only

    'Infinite' means 'not finite'.

    Potentially infinite means finite but variable without bound.
    Actually infinite means a fixed quantity larger than every finite
    quantity. Die Zahl 0 ist größer als jede endliche Zahl [Cantor].

    And, we, as finite beings, can't really perceive the nature of the
    actual infinity, and thus can make errors in trying to handle it as if
    it was finite.


    Hilbert, Cantor, and others
    call that potential infinite.

    Does it matter what it's called?
    It is what it is.

    If it is only potentially, then Cantor's theory is wrong.

    A finite sequence of only
    true.or.not.first.false 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺𝘀
    holds a 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺 that,
    after all swaps,
    Bob is not in any visible or dark room
    which he has ever been in.

    He is not elsewhere either.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to All on Fri Nov 1 00:15:24 2024
    On 10/31/2024 4:27 PM, WM wrote:
    On 31.10.2024 20:25, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/31/2024 2:30 PM, WM wrote:
    On 31.10.2024 19:07, Jim Burns wrote:

    'Infinite' means 'not finite'.

    Potentially infinite means
    finite but variable without bound.

    Our sets do not change.

    Then:
    Multiplication of
    all infinitely many fractions of the open interval (0,1)
    results in some fractions in (1, 2).

    No.
    _Of course_ they don't.
    a/b,c/d ∈ (0,1) ⇒
    a < b, c < d ⇒
    a⋅c < b⋅c < b⋅d ⇒
    (a/b)⋅(c/d) = (a⋅c)/(b⋅d) ∈ (0,1)

    Did you mean "addition" instead of "multiplication"?

    Multiplication of
    all infinitely many numbers of the open interval (0,ω)
    result in some numbers in (ω, ω*2).

    No.
    _Of course_ they don't.

    ⎛ Assume otherwise.c
    ⎜ Assume j,k ∈ ⟦0,ω⦆ ∧ j×k ∉ ⟦0,ω⦆

    ⎜ The set {i∈⟦0,ω⦆: j×i∉⟦0,ω⦆} of
    ⎜ finite.ordinals with infinite products
    ⎜ holds k, is not empty, and
    ⎜ holds least element ψ+1 ∈ ⟦0,ω⦆
    ⎜ j×(ψ+1) = j+(j×ψ) ∉ ⟦0,ω⦆
    ⎜ j×ψ ∈ ⟦0,ω⦆

    ⎜ The set {i∈⟦0,ω⦆: j+i∉⟦0,ω⦆} of
    ⎜ finite.ordinals with infinite sums
    ⎜ holds j×ψ, is not empty, and
    ⎜ holds least element φ+1 ∈ ⟦0,ω⦆
    ⎜ j+(φ+1) = (j+φ)+1 ∉ ⟦0,ω⦆
    ⎜ j+φ ∈ ⟦0,ω⦆

    ⎜ The set {i∈⟦0,ω⦆: i+1∉⟦0,ω⦆} of
    ⎜ finite.ordinals with infinite successors
    ⎜ holds j+φ, is not empty, and
    ⎜ holds least element ξ+1
    ⎜ ξ+1 ∉ ⟦0,ω⦆
    ⎜ ξ ∈ ⟦0,ω⦆

    ⎜⎛ However,
    ⎜⎜ the definition of ω is not
    ⎜⎜ what you (WM) think it is.
    ⎜⎜ k ∈ ⟦0,ω⦆ :⇔
    ⎜⎝ ∀j ∈ ⦅0,k⟧: ∃i ∈ ⟦0,j⦆: i+1=j

    ⎜ ξ ∈ ⟦0,ω⦆
    ⎜ ∀j ∈ ⦅0,ξ⟧: ∃i ∈ ⟦0,j⦆: i+1=j
    ⎜ Also,
    ⎜ ∀j ∈ {ξ+1}: ∃i ∈ ⟦0,j⦆: i+1=j
    ⎜ because
    ⎜ ξ ∈ ⟦0,ξ+1⦆ and ξ + 1 = ξ+1

    ⎜ Thus,
    ⎜ ∀j ∈ ⦅0,ξ⟧∪{ξ+1}: ∃i ∈ ⟦0,j⦆: i+1=j
    ⎜ ∀j ∈ ⦅0,ξ+1⟧: ∃i ∈ ⟦0,j⦆: i+1=j
    ⎜ ξ+1 ∈ ⟦0,ω⦆

    ⎜ However
    ⎜ ξ+1 ∉ ⟦0,ω⦆
    ⎝ Contradiction.

    Therefore,
    for each two j,k ∈ ⟦0,ω⦆: j×k ∈ ⟦0,ω⦆

    Multiplication of
    all infinitely many numbers of the open interval (0,ω)
    result in some numbers in (ω, ω*2).

    No.
    _Of course_ they don't.

    Reducing the density increases the interval.

    'Infinity' does not mean what you want it to mean.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to joes on Fri Nov 1 11:10:28 2024
    On 31.10.2024 22:03, joes wrote:
    Am Thu, 31 Oct 2024 18:36:56 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 31.10.2024 12:36, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 10/30/24 3:52 PM, WM wrote:

    Do all numbers between 0 and ω exist such that they can be doubled?
    I seriously doubt the sanity of your fictional world where some numbers
    don't exist.

    In my theory all numbers are assumed to exist.

    All Natural Numbers can be doubled and get a number that is in that
    set.
    But some of them were not doubled.
    I read "ALL naturals".

    If all naturals are doubled, then not all doubles can be naturals
    because multiplication by 2 results in numbers larger than the
    multiplied numbers.

    Regards, WM


    Have you considered the inverse of your function
    that counts the UFs larger than its argument?


    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to joes on Fri Nov 1 11:14:59 2024
    On 31.10.2024 22:07, joes wrote:

    Reducing the density increases the interval.
    All even numbers have a "half" that is natural.

    ω + 2 certainly, but ω*4 + 4?

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to joes on Fri Nov 1 11:13:02 2024
    On 31.10.2024 22:05, joes wrote:
    Am Thu, 31 Oct 2024 19:30:00 +0100 schrieb WM:

    Bob is not in any visible or dark room which he has ever been in.
    He is not elsewhere either.
    He is nowhere.

    My logic prohibits a loss during lossless exchange, even if repeated
    infinitely often. In my theory I apply this logic.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Jim Burns on Fri Nov 1 11:24:09 2024
    On 01.11.2024 05:15, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/31/2024 4:27 PM, WM wrote:
    On 31.10.2024 20:25, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/31/2024 2:30 PM, WM wrote:
    On 31.10.2024 19:07, Jim Burns wrote:

    'Infinite' means 'not finite'.

    Potentially infinite means
    finite but variable without bound.

    Our sets do not change.

    Then:
    Multiplication of
    all infinitely many fractions of the open interval (0,1)
    results in some fractions in (1, 2).

    No.

    If numbers are doubled, then greater numbers are produced.
    That is simple mathematics. There is no doubt about it.
    If all natural numbers are doubled, then not only natural numbers are
    produced.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Fri Nov 1 11:30:38 2024
    On 01.11.2024 00:44, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 10/31/24 4:27 PM, WM wrote:

    Reducing the density increases the interval.

    Nope, becuase there is a difference in nature between an interval of
    finite length, and an interval of infinite length.

    If the complete interval is reduced in density then it is enlarged.
    Complete sets remain of same size.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Fri Nov 1 11:33:29 2024
    On 01.11.2024 00:44, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 10/31/24 2:30 PM, WM wrote:

    'Infinite' means 'not finite'.

    Potentially infinite means finite but variable without bound.
    Actually infinite means a fixed quantity larger than every finite
    quantity. Die Zahl ℵo ist größer als jede endliche Zahl [Cantor].

    And, we, as finite beings, can't really perceive the nature of the
    actual infinity, and thus can make errors

    You do. You forget that logic remains valid always and everywhere.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Fri Nov 1 11:28:37 2024
    On 01.11.2024 00:44, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 10/31/24 1:36 PM, WM wrote:
    On 31.10.2024 12:36, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 10/30/24 3:52 PM, WM wrote:

    Do all numbers between 0 and ω exist such that they can be doubled?

    All Natural Numbers can be doubled and get a number that is in that set.

    But some of them were not doubled.

    Nope, they all were.

    If numbers are doubled, then greater numbers are produced.
    That is simple mathematics. There is no doubt about it.
    If all natural numbers are doubled, then not only natural numbers are
    produced.

    Which one wasn't?

    Natural numbers greater than ω/2.
    Note that in actual infinity all natural numbers including ω-1 are existing.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to FromTheRafters on Fri Nov 1 11:17:50 2024
    On 31.10.2024 22:53, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM pretended :

    Our sets do not change.

    Then:
    Multiplication of all infinitely many fractions of the open interval
    (0, 1) results in some fractions in (1, 2).
    Multiplication of all infinitely many numbers of the open interval (0,
    ω) result in some numbers in (ω, ω*2).

    No, there are no finite numbers in the transfinites.

    Numbers like ω + 4 are in the infinite. But if all natural numbers are doubled, then numbers in the infinite are produced.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to FromTheRafters on Fri Nov 1 12:42:07 2024
    On 01.11.2024 11:59, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM used his keyboard to write :
    On 31.10.2024 22:53, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM pretended :

    Our sets do not change.

    Then:
    Multiplication of all infinitely many fractions of the open interval
    (0, 1) results in some fractions in (1, 2).
    Multiplication of all infinitely many numbers of the open interval
    (0, ω) result in some numbers in (ω, ω*2).

    No, there are no finite numbers in the transfinites.

    Numbers like ω + 4 are in the infinite. But if all natural numbers are
    doubled, then numbers in the infinite are produced.

    What makes you think so?

    Simplest mathematics. Doubling increases the value. If all natnumbers
    are existing, then the greatest existing natnumber is existing too, then doubling it does not produce a natural number.

    Actual infinity is not about variable sets!

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to All on Fri Nov 1 10:02:11 2024
    On 11/1/2024 6:24 AM, WM wrote:
    On 01.11.2024 05:15, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/31/2024 4:27 PM, WM wrote:
    On 31.10.2024 20:25, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 10/31/2024 2:30 PM, WM wrote:

    Potentially infinite means
    finite but variable without bound.

    Our sets do not change.

    Then:
    Multiplication of
    all infinitely many fractions of the open interval (0,1)
    results in some fractions in (1, 2).

    No.

    If numbers are doubled, then greater numbers are produced.

    Yes.
    ⟨0,1,...,n-1,n⟩ < ⟨0,1,...,n-1,n,n+1,...,n+n-1,n+1⟩ < ω

    That is simple mathematics. There is no doubt about it.

    If all natural numbers are doubled,
    then not only natural numbers are produced.

    No.
    ⟨0,1,...,n-1,n⟩ < ⟨0,1,...,n-1,n,n+1,...,n+n-1,n+1⟩ < ω

    ⎛ ⟨0,...,k⟩ < ω ⇔
    ⎜ ∀j ∈ ⟨0,...,k⟩\⟨0⟩:
    ⎝ ∃i ∈ ⟨0,...,k⟩\⟨k⟩: i+1=j

    ∀j ∈ ⟨0,1,...,n-1,n⟩\⟨0⟩:
    ∃i ∈ ⟨0,1,...,n-1,n⟩\⟨n⟩: i+1=j

    ⟨0,1,...,n-1,n⟩ < ω

    ∀j ∈ ⟨0,1,...,n-1,n,n+1,...,n+n-1,n+n⟩\⟨0⟩:
    ∃i ∈ ⟨0,1,...,n-1,n,n+1,...,n+n-1,n+n⟩\⟨n+n⟩: i+1=j

    ⟨0,1,...,n-1,n,n+1,...,n+n-1,n+n⟩ < ω

    'Infinity' does not mean what you want it to mean.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to All on Fri Nov 1 11:50:55 2024
    On 11/1/2024 6:13 AM, WM wrote:
    On 31.10.2024 22:05, joes wrote:
    Am Thu, 31 Oct 2024 19:30:00 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 31.10.2024 19:07, Jim Burns wrote:

    A finite sequence of only
    true.or.not.first.false 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺𝘀
    holds a 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺 that,
    after all swaps, Bob is not in
    any visible or dark room which he has ever been in.

    He is not elsewhere either.

    He is nowhere.

    My logic prohibits
    a loss during lossless exchange,
    even if repeated infinitely often.

    Define
    lossless i :⇔
    i.many exchanges must be lossless

    Consider the set Lossless of the lossless
    Lossless = {i: lossless i}

    For each j ∈ Lossless:
    ⟨0,1,...,j-1,j,j+1⟩ ⊆ Lossless and
    the set Lossless is more.than.j.many and

    For each j ∈ Lossless:
    the set Lossless is not that lossless j.many

    However.many the set Lossless is,
    that.many exchanges can be not.lossless.

    In my theory I apply this logic.

    'Infinite' does not mean what you want it to mean.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to FromTheRafters on Fri Nov 1 18:08:45 2024
    On 01.11.2024 13:37, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM laid this down on his screen :
    On 01.11.2024 11:59, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM used his keyboard to write :
    On 31.10.2024 22:53, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM pretended :

    Our sets do not change.

    Then:
    Multiplication of all infinitely many fractions of the open
    interval (0, 1) results in some fractions in (1, 2).
    Multiplication of all infinitely many numbers of the open interval >>>>>> (0, ω) result in some numbers in (ω, ω*2).

    No, there are no finite numbers in the transfinites.

    Numbers like ω + 4 are in the infinite. But if all natural numbers
    are doubled, then numbers in the infinite are produced.

    What makes you think so?

    Simplest mathematics. Doubling increases the value. If all natnumbers
    are existing, then the greatest existing natnumber is existing too,

    That is not the nature of the set of natural numbers. There is no last,
    that is for finite sets only.

    But there are all. No point can escape doubling.

    then doubling it does not produce a natural number.

    Stemming from a bad assumption, any garbage can be claimed.

    Yes, Cantor's theory is the best example.

    Actual infinity is not about variable sets!

    Sets don't change!

    Therefore not all doubled elements can be absorbed by the set.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Jim Burns on Fri Nov 1 18:28:21 2024
    On 01.11.2024 15:02, Jim Burns wrote:

    'Infinity' does not mean what you want it to mean.

    Infinity can have two meanings. I have no preference.
    But if the meaning of invariable sets is used, then every doubling will
    produce numbers larger than all doubled elements of the set.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Jim Burns on Fri Nov 1 18:37:34 2024
    On 01.11.2024 16:50, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 11/1/2024 6:13 AM, WM wrote:

    My logic prohibits
    a loss during lossless exchange,
    even if repeated infinitely often.

    Define
    lossless i

    After all exchanges i remains in the matrix.

    Consider the set Lossless of the lossless
    Lossless = {i: lossless i}

    Garbage.

    In my theory I apply this logic.

    'Infinite' does not mean what you want it to mean.

    How would you know?

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to FromTheRafters on Fri Nov 1 21:12:49 2024
    On 01.11.2024 19:43, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM presented the following explanation :
    On 01.11.2024 15:02, Jim Burns wrote:

    'Infinity' does not mean what you want it to mean.

    Infinity can have two meanings.

    More than that, but in this context it simply means not finite.

    Is the elapsing time infinite?
    Is the number of real points in the interval (0, 1) infinite?
    Can you find the difference?

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Fri Nov 1 20:55:13 2024
    On 11/1/24 6:17 AM, WM wrote:
    On 31.10.2024 22:53, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM pretended :

    Our sets do not change.

    Then:
    Multiplication of all infinitely many fractions of the open interval
    (0, 1) results in some fractions in (1, 2).
    Multiplication of all infinitely many numbers of the open interval
    (0, ω) result in some numbers in (ω, ω*2).

    No, there are no finite numbers in the transfinites.

    Numbers like ω + 4 are in the infinite. But if all natural numbers are doubled, then numbers in the infinite are produced.

    Regards, WM


    Nope, as all finite number doubled are finite, and all Natural Numbers
    are finite numbers.

    You just don't understand what you are talking about.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to FromTheRafters on Sat Nov 2 10:24:07 2024
    On 01.11.2024 23:01, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM was thinking very hard :
    On 01.11.2024 19:43, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM presented the following explanation :
    On 01.11.2024 15:02, Jim Burns wrote:

    'Infinity' does not mean what you want it to mean.

    Infinity can have two meanings.

    More than that, but in this context it simply means not finite.

    Is the elapsing time infinite?

    Starting when?

    Irrelevant. Now or at the big bang.

    Is the number of real points in the interval (0, 1) infinite?

    Uncountably so.

    Can you find the difference?

    There is no difference up to isomorphism. If time is considered
    infinitely divisible

    Time is defined by its smallest unit, for instance a second.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to FromTheRafters on Sat Nov 2 11:04:46 2024
    On 02.11.2024 10:29, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM expressed precisely :
    On 01.11.2024 23:01, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM was thinking very hard :
    On 01.11.2024 19:43, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM presented the following explanation :
    On 01.11.2024 15:02, Jim Burns wrote:

    'Infinity' does not mean what you want it to mean.

    Infinity can have two meanings.

    More than that, but in this context it simply means not finite.

    Is the elapsing time infinite?

    Starting when?

    Irrelevant. Now or at the big bang.

    Is the number of real points in the interval (0, 1) infinite?

    Uncountably so.

    Can you find the difference?

    There is no difference up to isomorphism. If time is considered
    infinitely divisible

    Time is defined by its smallest unit, for instance a second.

    In that case, time is only countably infinite.

    No. It "is not (like every individual transfinite and in general
    everything due to an 'idea divina') determined in itself, fixed, and unchangeable, but a finite in the process of change, having in each of
    its actual states a finite size; like, for instance, the time elapsed
    after the beginning of the world, which, measured in some time-unit, for instance a year, is finite in every moment, but always growing beyond
    all finite limits, without ever becoming really infinitely large." [G.
    Cantor, letter to I. Jeiler (13 Oct 1895)]

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Sat Nov 2 11:27:06 2024
    On 02.11.2024 01:55, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 11/1/24 6:30 AM, WM wrote:

    If the complete interval is reduced in density then it is enlarged.
    Complete sets remain of same size.

    Nope. because the "complete interval" has infinite length, and thus
    "density" in the finite sense isn't defined.

    Density does not depend on finiteness. The density of even numbers is
    half of the density of integers.

    When doubling all natnumbers, the result cannot be that numbers are
    exorcized.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Sat Nov 2 11:29:40 2024
    On 02.11.2024 01:55, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 11/1/24 1:28 PM, WM wrote:
    if the meaning of invariable sets is used, then every doubling
    will produce numbers larger than all doubled elements of the set.

    Nope. That is just your finite thinking getting in the way.

    That is not finite but complete thinking.

    You forget that the infinite set has no end,

    If all numbers are doubled, then larger numbers than existing are produced.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Sat Nov 2 11:20:10 2024
    On 02.11.2024 01:55, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 11/1/24 6:28 AM, WM wrote:
    On 01.11.2024 00:44, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 10/31/24 1:36 PM, WM wrote:
    On 31.10.2024 12:36, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 10/30/24 3:52 PM, WM wrote:

    Do all numbers between 0 and ω exist such that they can be doubled? >>>>
    All Natural Numbers can be doubled and get a number that is in that
    set.

    But some of them were not doubled.

    Nope, they all were.

    If numbers are doubled, then greater numbers are produced.
    That is simple mathematics. There is no doubt about it.
    If all natural numbers are doubled, then not only natural numbers are
    produced.

    No;e, becuase those greater numbers were already there.

    And were doubled.

    ω/2 isn't a number

    It is not visible.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Sat Nov 2 11:31:41 2024
    On 02.11.2024 01:55, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 11/1/24 6:33 AM, WM wrote:
    On 01.11.2024 00:44, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 10/31/24 2:30 PM, WM wrote:

    'Infinite' means 'not finite'.

    Potentially infinite means finite but variable without bound.
    Actually infinite means a fixed quantity larger than every finite
    quantity. Die Zahl ℵo ist größer als jede endliche Zahl [Cantor].

    And, we, as finite beings, can't really perceive the nature of the
    actual infinity, and thus can make errors

    You do. You forget that logic remains valid always and everywhere.

    No, logic remains valid in the field it is defined in.

    It is valid for all sciences.

    That two parallel lines will never meet is only valid in some forms of Geometry.

    That is not contradicting logic. The lines will meet already on the
    surface of a sphere.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From joes@21:1/5 to All on Sat Nov 2 12:26:55 2024
    Am Fri, 01 Nov 2024 11:14:59 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 31.10.2024 22:07, joes wrote:

    Reducing the density increases the interval.
    All even numbers have a "half" that is natural.
    ω + 2 certainly, but ω*4 + 4?
    Those are not even numbers, because they are infinite and not natural.

    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From joes@21:1/5 to All on Sat Nov 2 12:20:56 2024
    Am Fri, 01 Nov 2024 18:08:45 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 01.11.2024 13:37, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM laid this down on his screen :
    On 01.11.2024 11:59, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM used his keyboard to write :
    On 31.10.2024 22:53, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM pretended :

    Our sets do not change.
    Multiplication of all infinitely many fractions of the open
    interval (0, 1) results in some fractions in (1, 2).
    Multiplication of all infinitely many numbers of the open interval >>>>>>> (0, ω) result in some numbers in (ω, ω*2).
    No, there are no finite numbers in the transfinites.
    Numbers like ω + 4 are in the infinite. But if all natural numbers
    are doubled, then numbers in the infinite are produced.
    What makes you think so?
    Simplest mathematics. Doubling increases the value. If all natnumbers
    are existing, then the greatest existing natnumber is existing too,
    That is not the nature of the set of natural numbers. There is no last,
    that is for finite sets only.
    But there are all. No point can escape doubling.
    Actual infinity is not about variable sets!
    Sets don't change!
    Therefore not all doubled elements can be absorbed by the set.
    Why "absorbed"? Do you think some multiple of a power of 2 is not natural?

    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Alan Mackenzie@21:1/5 to joes on Sat Nov 2 14:04:14 2024
    joes <noreply@example.org> wrote:
    Am Fri, 01 Nov 2024 11:14:59 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 31.10.2024 22:07, joes wrote:

    Reducing the density increases the interval.
    All even numbers have a "half" that is natural.
    ω + 2 certainly, but ω*4 + 4?
    Those are not even numbers, because they are infinite and not natural.

    Mit "even" meinst du "selbst" oder "gerade"? ;-)

    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

    --
    Alan Mackenzie (Nuremberg, Germany).

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Sat Nov 2 12:02:56 2024
    On 11/2/24 6:27 AM, WM wrote:
    On 02.11.2024 01:55, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 11/1/24 6:30 AM, WM wrote:

    If the complete interval is reduced in density then it is enlarged.
    Complete sets remain of same size.

    Nope. because the "complete interval" has infinite length, and thus
    "density" in the finite sense isn't defined.

    Density does not depend on finiteness. The density of even numbers is
    half of the density of integers.

    When doubling all natnumbers, the result cannot be that numbers are exorcized.

    Regards, WM

    The ratio of infinite quantities doesn't need to give a value.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Sat Nov 2 12:03:00 2024
    On 11/2/24 6:20 AM, WM wrote:
    On 02.11.2024 01:55, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 11/1/24 6:28 AM, WM wrote:
    On 01.11.2024 00:44, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 10/31/24 1:36 PM, WM wrote:
    On 31.10.2024 12:36, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 10/30/24 3:52 PM, WM wrote:

    Do all numbers between 0 and ω exist such that they can be doubled? >>>>>
    All Natural Numbers can be doubled and get a number that is in
    that set.

    But some of them were not doubled.

    Nope, they all were.

    If numbers are doubled, then greater numbers are produced.
    That is simple mathematics. There is no doubt about it.
    If all natural numbers are doubled, then not only natural numbers are
    produced.

    No;e, becuase those greater numbers were already there.

    And were doubled.

    ω/2 isn't a number

    It is not visible.

    It isn't a finite number,

    It isn't a transfinite-number by the basic definition

    What definition of number does it satisfy?

    Only your dark reasoning that doesn't obey the rule.


    Regards, WM


    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to joes on Sat Nov 2 18:24:45 2024
    On 02.11.2024 13:20, joes wrote:

    Why "absorbed"? Do you think some multiple of a power of 2 is not natural?

    If all multiples of 2 smaller than ω are doubled, then this doubling
    results in larger numbers than doubled.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to FromTheRafters on Sat Nov 2 18:52:21 2024
    On 02.11.2024 15:11, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM pretended :

    No. It "is not (like every individual transfinite and in general
    everything due to an 'idea divina') determined in itself, fixed, and
    unchangeable, but a finite in the process of change, having in each of
    its actual states a finite size; like, for instance, the time elapsed
    after the beginning of the world, which, measured in some time-unit,
    for instance a year, is finite in every moment, but always growing
    beyond all finite limits, without ever becoming really infinitely
    large." [G. Cantor, letter to I. Jeiler (13 Oct 1895)]

    Really, aren't you ever going to get beyond the old ways?

    I do not leave the correct way.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to All on Sat Nov 2 16:53:52 2024
    On 11/2/2024 1:24 PM, WM wrote:
    On 02.11.2024 13:20, joes wrote:

    Why "absorbed"?
    Do you think
    some multiple of a power of 2 is not natural?

    If all multiples of 2 smaller than ω are doubled,
    then this doubling results in larger numbers than doubled.

    If n is finite ∧ ω ≤ n+n
    then ω is finite.

    ⎛ Assume n is finite
    ⎜ ⟦0,n⟧ is finite
    ⎜ ⟦n,n+n⟧ = n+ᵉᵃᶜʰ ⟦0,n⟧
    ⎜ ⟦0,n+n⟧ = ⟦0,n⟧∪⟦n,n+n⟧

    ⎜ Assume ω ≤ n+n
    ⎜ ω ∈ ⟦0,n+n⟧

    ⎜ ⟦0,n⟧ is finite, which means that
    ⎜ each subset of ⟦0,n⟧ is two.ended.or.{}

    ⎜ Each subset of ⟦n,n+n⟧ is two.ended.or.{}
    ⎜ Each subset of ⟦0,n+n⟧ is two.ended.or.{}
    ⎜ ⟦0,n+n⟧ is finite.

    ⎜ ω ∈ ⟦0,n+n⟧
    ⎜ Each subset of ⟦0,ω⟧ is
    ⎜ a subset of ⟦0,n+n⟧
    ⎜ and, thus, that subset is two.ended.or.{}

    ⎜ ⟦0,ω⟧ is finite.
    ⎝ ω is finite.

    Therefore,
    if n is finite ∧ ω ≤ n+n
    then ω is finite.

    'Finite' means
    each subset is two.ended.or.{}
    'Infinite' means not finite.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Jim Burns on Sat Nov 2 22:34:44 2024
    On 02.11.2024 21:53, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 11/2/2024 1:24 PM, WM wrote:
    On 02.11.2024 13:20, joes wrote:

    Why "absorbed"?
    Do you think
    some multiple of a power of 2 is not natural?

    If all multiples of 2 smaller than ω are doubled,
    then this doubling results in larger numbers than doubled.

    If n is finite  ∧  ω ≤ n+n
    then ω is finite.

    That might appear so in a set without dark numbers. It is not true when
    dark numbers come into play.

    ⎜ ⟦0,n⟧ is finite, which means that
    ⎜ each subset of ⟦0,n⟧ is two.ended.or.{}

    ⎜ Each subset of ⟦n,n+n⟧ is two.ended.or.{}

    Yes, but the order of dark numbers cannot be determined.
    Every number n < ω is finite. ω/2 is finite.
    'Finite' means
    each subset is two.ended.or.{}
    'Infinite' means not finite.

    Every interval (0, n) is finite because n is finite. But for dark
    numbers n this cannot be seen. The dark realm appears as infinite. It
    cannot be counted through.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Alan Mackenzie@21:1/5 to FromTheRafters on Sat Nov 2 22:08:46 2024
    FromTheRafters <FTR@nomail.afraid.org> wrote:
    Alan Mackenzie laid this down on his screen :
    joes <noreply@example.org> wrote:
    Am Fri, 01 Nov 2024 11:14:59 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 31.10.2024 22:07, joes wrote:

    Reducing the density increases the interval.
    All even numbers have a "half" that is natural.
    ω + 2 certainly, but ω*4 + 4?
    Those are not even numbers, because they are infinite and not natural.

    Mit "even" meinst du "selbst" oder "gerade"? ;-)

    Google Translate says:

    By "even" do you mean "even" or "even"? ;-)

    Not much help there. :)

    That's why I wrote it in German! It has two different words for two of
    the meanings of even in English. There're at least three meanings.

    On the other hand, sometimes distinct words in English translate to a
    single word in German. For example, safety and security both translate
    to Sicherheit. They're not the same thing. A timebomb locked in a
    filing cabinet is secure, but is hardly safe.

    --
    Alan Mackenzie (Nuremberg, Germany).

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Sat Nov 2 20:17:16 2024
    On 11/2/24 5:34 PM, WM wrote:
    On 02.11.2024 21:53, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 11/2/2024 1:24 PM, WM wrote:
    On 02.11.2024 13:20, joes wrote:

    Why "absorbed"?
    Do you think
    some multiple of a power of 2 is not natural?

    If all multiples of 2 smaller than ω are doubled,
    then this doubling results in larger numbers than doubled.

    If n is finite  ∧  ω ≤ n+n
    then ω is finite.

    That might appear so in a set without dark numbers. It is not true when
    dark numbers come into play.

    It *IS* true in a set without dark numbers, and every Natural Number is
    not dark, so we don't need your "dark numbers", they are just your cruch
    to handle the fact that you logic can't actually handle the full
    infinite set of Natural Numbers.


    ⎜ ⟦0,n⟧ is finite, which means that
    ⎜ each subset of ⟦0,n⟧ is two.ended.or.{}

    ⎜ Each subset of ⟦n,n+n⟧ is two.ended.or.{}

    Yes, but the order of dark numbers cannot be determined.
    Every number n < ω is finite. ω/2 is finite.

    But it can't be, becuase if w/2 was finite, and thus had a finite value
    of x. Then 2*x would be infinite, and thus there were less than 2*x
    Natural Numbers, and thus not an infinite number.

    Remember, 2 times any Natural Number is a Natural Number, provable by mathematics.

    'Finite' means
    each subset is two.ended.or.{}
    'Infinite' means not finite.

    Every interval (0, n) is finite because n is finite. But for dark
    numbers n this cannot be seen. The dark realm appears as infinite. It
    cannot be counted through.

    And thus is not finite.

    Your logic is just full of contradictions, as your system has blown
    itself, and your mind, to smithereens, leaving the dark hole behind it.


    Regards, WM


    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From joes@21:1/5 to All on Sun Nov 3 08:50:37 2024
    Am Sat, 02 Nov 2024 18:24:45 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 02.11.2024 13:20, joes wrote:

    Why "absorbed"? Do you think some multiple of a power of 2 is not
    natural?
    If all multiples of 2 smaller than ω are doubled, then this doubling
    results in larger numbers than doubled.
    Powers of 2, not multiples. Apparently you do think that there is a
    natural n such that 2^n is infinite.

    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to FromTheRafters on Sun Nov 3 12:31:26 2024
    On 02.11.2024 23:28, FromTheRafters wrote:

    Thanks for expanding on that. I figured that there must be nuance
    involved that google translate didn't pick up on.

    Even a small glass costs a lot.
    Two is an even natnumber, even the smallest.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to joes on Sun Nov 3 12:56:48 2024
    On 03.11.2024 09:50, joes wrote:
    pparently you do think that there is a
    natural n such that 2^n is infinite.

    If all naturals are there, then no further one is available. But
    doubling all yields a greater number than all.

    In actual infinity there is no way to avoid this.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Sun Nov 3 12:49:43 2024
    On 03.11.2024 01:17, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 11/2/24 5:34 PM, WM wrote:

    Remember, 2 times any Natural Number is a Natural Number, provable by mathematics.

    Every doubled interval gets larger. (0, ω)*2 = (0, ω*2).

    Every interval (0, n) is finite because n is finite. But for dark
    numbers n this cannot be seen. The dark realm appears as infinite. It
    cannot be counted through.

    And thus is not finite.

    Its numbers are finite as we see when a dark number becomes visible. ω
    is the first infinite number by definition. ω - 1 is finite but lies in
    the dark realm and therefore cannot be counted to. It appears as if it
    was infinite.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Sun Nov 3 07:13:48 2024
    On 11/3/24 6:49 AM, WM wrote:
    On 03.11.2024 01:17, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 11/2/24 5:34 PM, WM wrote:

    Remember, 2 times any Natural Number is a Natural Number, provable by
    mathematics.

    Every doubled interval gets larger. (0, ω)*2 = (0, ω*2).

    Nope, as no element of (0, ω) when doubled exceeds ω, as all were
    finite, and twice a finite number is finite.

    Note, you can't multiply an interval by a value, you double the elements
    of the interval. It might work for finite intervals, but not for
    infinite intervals.


    Every interval (0, n) is finite because n is finite. But for dark
    numbers n this cannot be seen. The dark realm appears as infinite. It
    cannot be counted through.

    And thus is not finite.

    Its numbers are finite as we see when a dark number becomes visible. ω
    is the first infinite number by definition. ω - 1 is finite but lies in
    the dark realm and therefore cannot be counted to. It appears as if it
    was infinite.


    If a dark number can become visible, then it was never dark, and your
    set was never complete.

    ω - 1 is NOT "finte" but undefined in the base mode of Trans-Finite
    Numbers, just as 0-1 isn't defined in the set of Numbers 0, 1, 2, ...

    Your "Dark Numbers" are just the impossiblitlies your broken logic
    create to try to avoid showing their flaws.

    Regards, WM


    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Sun Nov 3 15:17:48 2024
    On 03.11.2024 13:13, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 11/3/24 6:56 AM, WM wrote:
    On 03.11.2024 09:50, joes wrote:
    pparently you do think that there is a
    natural n such that 2^n is infinite.

    If all naturals are there, then no further one is available. But
    doubling all yields a greater number than all.

    In actual infinity there is no way to avoid this.

    If a Natural Numbers are there, there is no further needed, as they go without end.

    All are doubled. No remainings cans absorb all products.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From joes@21:1/5 to All on Sun Nov 3 15:55:56 2024
    Am Sun, 03 Nov 2024 12:56:48 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 03.11.2024 09:50, joes wrote:
    pparently you do think that there is a natural n such that 2^n is
    infinite.
    If all naturals are there, then no further one is available. But
    doubling all yields a greater number than all.
    In actual infinity there is no way to avoid this.
    We don't need any further ones because we ALREADY HAVE ALL OF THEM,
    even including the doubles.

    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From WM@21:1/5 to joes on Sun Nov 3 18:00:18 2024
    On 03.11.2024 16:55, joes wrote:
    Am Sun, 03 Nov 2024 12:56:48 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 03.11.2024 09:50, joes wrote:
    pparently you do think that there is a natural n such that 2^n is
    infinite.
    If all naturals are there, then no further one is available. But
    doubling all yields a greater number than all.
    In actual infinity there is no way to avoid this.
    We don't need any further ones because we ALREADY HAVE ALL OF THEM,
    even including the doubles.

    But you have not what is done to all of them afterwards. You must be clairvoyant if you knew in advance whether something is done at all.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Sun Nov 3 16:21:27 2024
    On 11/3/24 9:17 AM, WM wrote:
    On 03.11.2024 13:13, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 11/3/24 6:56 AM, WM wrote:
    On 03.11.2024 09:50, joes wrote:
    pparently you do think that there is a
    natural n such that 2^n is infinite.

    If all naturals are there, then no further one is available. But
    doubling all yields a greater number than all.

    In actual infinity there is no way to avoid this.

    If a Natural Numbers are there, there is no further needed, as they go
    without end.

    All are doubled. No remainings cans absorb all products.

    Regards, WM

    But there are, becuase they are infinite.

    Your logic just doesn't work on infinite sets.

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  • From joes@21:1/5 to All on Sun Nov 3 22:12:23 2024
    Am Sun, 03 Nov 2024 18:00:18 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 03.11.2024 16:55, joes wrote:
    Am Sun, 03 Nov 2024 12:56:48 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 03.11.2024 09:50, joes wrote:
    pparently you do think that there is a natural n such that 2^n is
    infinite.
    If all naturals are there, then no further one is available. But
    doubling all yields a greater number than all.
    In actual infinity there is no way to avoid this.
    We don't need any further ones because we ALREADY HAVE ALL OF THEM,
    even including the doubles.
    But you have not what is done to all of them afterwards.
    Yes I have. The set of even numbers is a subset.

    You must be
    clairvoyant if you knew in advance whether something is done at all.
    I know I will get even numbers.

    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to Chris M. Thomasson on Sun Nov 3 19:16:48 2024
    On 11/3/24 5:40 PM, Chris M. Thomasson wrote:
    On 11/3/2024 3:56 AM, WM wrote:
    On 03.11.2024 09:50, joes wrote:
    pparently you do think that there is a
    natural n such that 2^n is infinite.

    If all naturals are there, then no further one is available.

    Sigh. There are infinite natural numbers, there is no last largest one.

    Why can't you get this! Bone head!


    But doubling all yields a greater number than all.

    In actual infinity there is no way to avoid this.

    Regards, WM



    Because he runs out of fingers to count them on.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Mon Nov 4 12:09:44 2024
    On 03.11.2024 22:21, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 11/3/24 9:17 AM, WM wrote:

    If a Natural Numbers are there, there is no further needed, as they
    go without end.

    All are doubled. No remainings can absorb all products.

    But there are, because they are infinite.

    Your logic just doesn't work on infinite sets.

    My logic says all are there. Nobody knows whether I will double them
    again. If I decide to do so, then larger numbers are created.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From WM@21:1/5 to joes on Mon Nov 4 12:19:33 2024
    On 03.11.2024 23:12, joes wrote:
    Am Sun, 03 Nov 2024 18:00:18 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 03.11.2024 16:55, joes wrote:
    Am Sun, 03 Nov 2024 12:56:48 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 03.11.2024 09:50, joes wrote:
    pparently you do think that there is a natural n such that 2^n is
    infinite.
    If all naturals are there, then no further one is available. But
    doubling all yields a greater number than all.
    In actual infinity there is no way to avoid this.
    We don't need any further ones because we ALREADY HAVE ALL OF THEM,
    even including the doubles.
    But you have not what is done to all of them afterwards.
    Yes I have. The set of even numbers is a subset.

    It has only half of the reality of the natnumbers. But when doubling
    them, their full reality is maintained.

    You must be
    clairvoyant if you knew in advance whether something is done at all.
    I know I will get even numbers.

    But you will get larger even numbers than were multiplied.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Chris M. Thomasson on Mon Nov 4 12:28:44 2024
    On 03.11.2024 23:40, Chris M. Thomasson wrote:
    On 11/3/2024 3:56 AM, WM wrote:

    If all naturals are there, then no further one is available.

    Sigh. There are infinite natural numbers, there is no last largest one.

    Why can't you get this!

    Because Cantor applies all with no exception for enumerating purposes.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Mon Nov 4 12:15:35 2024
    On 03.11.2024 22:21, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 11/3/24 12:00 PM, WM wrote:
    On 03.11.2024 16:55, joes wrote:
    Am Sun, 03 Nov 2024 12:56:48 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 03.11.2024 09:50, joes wrote:
    pparently you do think that there is a natural n such that 2^n is
    infinite.
    If all naturals are there, then no further one is available. But
    doubling all yields a greater number than all.
    In actual infinity there is no way to avoid this.
    We don't need any further ones because we ALREADY HAVE ALL OF THEM,
    even including the doubles.

    But you have not what is done to all of them afterwards. You must be
    clairvoyant if you knew in advance whether something is done at all.

    The problem is that if you need to do them in "order" you can't complete
    the infinite task.

    Cantor says that all are there and can be paired with all fractions, for instance. That is what I accept for a moment.

    That is the problem with your finite logic, that it can't actualy DO
    things in actual infinity,

    I assume that it is possible.

    We don't need to be clairvoyant to understand what WILL happen with a deterministic operation.

    Either all numbers are there before - or not. These are the only
    alternatives. You must switch to and fro.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Mon Nov 4 07:26:40 2024
    On 11/4/24 6:09 AM, WM wrote:
    On 03.11.2024 22:21, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 11/3/24 9:17 AM, WM wrote:

    If a Natural Numbers are there, there is no further needed, as they
    go without end.

    All are doubled. No remainings can absorb all products.

    But there are, because they are infinite.

    Your logic just doesn't work on infinite sets.

    My logic says all are there. Nobody knows whether I will double them
    again. If I decide to do so, then larger numbers are created.

    Regards, WM

    Yes, *ALL* are there, without END, which your logic presmes there to be.

    The assumption of the existance of the non-existance end breaks your
    logic and blows it up (with your mind) to smithereens, and the darkness
    you rtalk about is just an artifact of the void left by the explosion.

    Yes, we know if you will double them again, as we started with the
    assumption that we double ALL the number, and any even number will be
    reached from doubling the number that is one half of it and will be
    doubled again.

    We know this because we defined that is what we are doing.

    If you try to think of it sequentially, as it seems you are doing, you
    can't ever do it, as it will require infinite sequential work, which a
    finite logic/mind can't do.

    The larger numbers are not "created" as you assumed that you had the
    actual infinity where all were created, which creates a set with no
    upper bound in it. If you set has an upper bound, you didn't create the
    actual infinity, and just lied to yourself.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to All on Mon Nov 4 07:22:16 2024
    On 11/4/2024 6:19 AM, WM wrote:
    On 03.11.2024 23:12, joes wrote:
    Am Sun, 03 Nov 2024 18:00:18 +0100 schrieb WM:

    You must be clairvoyant if you knew in advance
    whether something is done at all.

    I know I will get even numbers.

    But you will get
    larger even numbers than were multiplied.

    No.
    ℕ ⊇ 𝔼 := 2×ᵉᵃᶜʰ ℕ

    Our sets do not change.

    Sets.not.changing bestows upon finite beings
    the power to learn about infinitely.many,
    by virtue of
    assembling finite sequences of only
    true.or.not.first.false 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺𝘀 about
    each of those infinitely.many.

    Each finite 𝗰𝗹𝗮𝗶𝗺 in such a finite sequence
    must be true of each of the infinitely.many.
    Even (some) finite beings know that.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Mon Nov 4 14:26:06 2024
    Am 04.11.2024 um 10:26 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:
    On 11/4/2024 12:45 AM, FromTheRafters wrote:
    Chris M. Thomasson pretended :
    On 11/3/2024 2:40 PM, Chris M. Thomasson wrote:
    On 11/3/2024 3:56 AM, WM wrote:

    If all naturals are there, then no further one is [bla bla bla].

    That is implied by the MEANING of /all/. HOLY SHIT!!!

    Sigh. There are infinite natural numbers, there is no last largest one.

    "infinite" => "infinitely many"

    I should say infinitely many natural numbers... Sorry! ;^o

    Right.

    Yeah, it is best to use the words 'set of' when 'all' is invoked. The
    set of all natural numbers is infinite while each and every one of the
    elements is finite. In that sense (the set of) 'all' is different from
    'each' and 'every'.

    Each and every natural number is in all of them and vise versa? Fair
    enough?

    Nope.

    Each and every natural number is in THE SET OF all of them.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Mon Nov 4 14:28:28 2024
    Am 04.11.2024 um 10:30 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:

    Why does WM seem to think that this might hold:

    any_natural + 1 = a_strange_weirdo_dark_number_thing ?

    Because he's mad/insane/loco loco. I told ye.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Mon Nov 4 14:21:08 2024
    Am 04.11.2024 um 06:09 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:

    I wonder if he has dark hair? ;^)

    Have a look:

    https://de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wolfgang_M%C3%BCckenheim#/media/Datei:Wolfgang_M%C3%BCckenheim.JPG

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Mon Nov 4 17:58:39 2024
    Am 04.11.2024 um 17:50 schrieb Moebius:
    Am 04.11.2024 um 12:33 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:

    Infinite ways to represent 1:

    1 = 4 - 2 - 1
    1 = 3*2 - 5
    1 = 1 + 1 - 1
    1 = ...

    ?

    Right. {4 - 2 - 1, 3*2 - 5, 2 - 1, 3 - 2, 4 - 3, ...} = {1} (though FromTheAfter is too dumb to get that).

    This idiot is convinced that "in any case" |{x, y, z}| = 3.
    Actually,

    |{x, y, z}| = 3 iff x =/= y and x =/= z and y =/= z.

    In case of, say, x = y = z = 1 we have |{x, y, z}| = |{1}| = 1.

    All idiots are equal, but some are more equal than others.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Mon Nov 4 17:50:01 2024
    Am 04.11.2024 um 12:33 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:

    Infinite ways to represent 1:

    1 = 4 - 2 - 1
    1 = 3*2 - 5
    1 = 1 + 1 - 1
    1 = ...

    ?

    Right. {4 - 2 - 1, 3*2 - 5, 2 - 1, 3 - 2, 4 - 3, ...} = {1} (though FromTheAfter is too dumb to get that).

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Mon Nov 4 17:52:29 2024
    Am 04.11.2024 um 12:34 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:

    I guess WM would think that taking a gallon of water out of an infinite
    pool of water would somehow make it less than.

    If you repeat that infinitely many times, it might. :-P

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to Chris M. Thomasson on Mon Nov 4 12:03:56 2024
    On 11/4/2024 4:26 AM, Chris M. Thomasson wrote:
    On 11/4/2024 1:26 AM, Chris M. Thomasson wrote:
    On 11/4/2024 12:45 AM, FromTheRafters wrote:

    Yeah, it is best to use the words 'set of'
    when 'all' is invoked.
    The set of all natural numbers is infinite
    while
    each and every one of the elements is finite.
    In that sense (the set of) 'all'
    is different from 'each' and 'every'.

    Each and every natural number is in
    all of them and vise versa?
    Fair enough?

    For instance 2 = 2 wrt the vise versa comment.

    2 ≠ {2}

    I have greatly sinned against Mr Rafters' advice,
    but my reason for having done so is to make
    my posts sound as much like WM's posts as I can,
    in order to make mine harder to shrug off as
    talking about something else.
    ⎛ One can debate the wisdom of
    ⎜ trying to actually communicate with WM,
    ⎝ but, for what it's worth, that's where I am.
    Notwithstanding my own behavior,
    I agree with Mr Rafters.

    2 is an even prime.
    One of {2} is an even prime.
    Each of {2} is an even prime.

    All and only even primes are in non.empty {2}.
    Tat seems excessive in the case of {2}
    but the same language allows us to finitely.speak of
    (each of) uncountably.infinitely.many points in ℝ

    Not.doing what I and WM do
    is more a matter of clarity than of correctness.
    Actual claims are in Math, not English.
    But clarity is no small matter.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Jim Burns on Mon Nov 4 18:22:51 2024
    On 04.11.2024 13:22, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 11/4/2024 6:19 AM, WM wrote:
    On 03.11.2024 23:12, joes wrote:
    Am Sun, 03 Nov 2024 18:00:18 +0100 schrieb WM:

    You must be clairvoyant if you knew in advance
    whether something is done at all.

    I know I will get even numbers.

    But you will get
    larger even numbers than were multiplied.

    No.
    ℕ ⊇ 𝔼 := 2×ᵉᵃᶜʰ ℕ

    Our sets do not change.

    Please mark the sentence which you suspect to be wrong:

    - All natural numbers exist.
    - The even numbers have only half of the substance(*) of the integers.
    - Multiplication of all elements of a set does not change the substance.

    (*) For every interval (0, 2n] the number E of even natnumbers is half
    of the number N of natnumbers: E/N = 1/2. For (0, oo] we obtain the
    limit of the sequence 1/2, 1/2, 1/2, ... which is 1/2. This is the ratio
    of the substances or, as Cantor called it, the reality.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Mon Nov 4 18:24:43 2024
    On 04.11.2024 13:26, Richard Damon wrote:

    Yes, we know if you will double them again, as we started with the
    assumption that we double ALL the number, and any even number will be
    reached from doubling the number that is one half of it and will be
    doubled again.

    Please mark the sentence which you suspect to be wrong:

    - All natural numbers exist.
    - The even numbers have only half of the substance(*) of the integers.
    - Multiplication of all elements of a set does not change the substance.

    (*) For every interval (0, 2n] the number E of even natnumbers is half
    of the number N of natnumbers: E/N = 1/2. For (0, oo] we obtain the
    limit of the sequence 1/2, 1/2, 1/2, ... which is 1/2. This is the ratio
    of the substances or, as Cantor called it, the reality.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to All on Mon Nov 4 14:24:50 2024
    On 11/2/2024 5:34 PM, WM wrote:
    On 02.11.2024 21:53, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 11/2/2024 1:24 PM, WM wrote:

    If all multiples of 2 smaller than ω are doubled,
    then this doubling results in larger numbers than doubled.

    If n is finite  ∧  ω ≤ n+n
    then ω is finite.

    That might appear so in a set without dark numbers.

    For anything, for any φ,
    if n is finite ∧ φ ≤ n+n
    then φ is finite.

    Each subset Aₙ of ⟦0,n⟧ is two.ended.or.{}

    ⟦n,n+n⟧ = n+ᵉᵃᶜʰ ⟦0,n⟧

    For each subset Bₙ₊ₙ ⊆ ⟦n,n+n⟧
    Bₙ₊ₙ = n+ᵉᵃᶜʰ Aₙ ⊆ ⟦0,n⟧
    Aₙ is two.ended.or.{}
    If i,f are two ends of Aₙ
    then n+i,n+f are two ends of Bₙ₊ₙ

    Each subset Bₙ₊ₙ of ⟦n,n+n⟧ is two.ended.or.{}

    Consider ⟦0,φ⟧ ⊆ ⟦0,n+n⟧

    For each subset Cᵩ ⊆ ⟦0,φ⟧
    Cᵩ = Aₙ∪Bₙ₊ₙ
    Aₙ ⊆ ⟦0,n⟧ ∧ Bₙ₊ₙ ⊆ ⟦n,n+n⟧
    Aₙ and Bₙ₊ₙ are each two.ended.or.{}

    If Aₙ = {} = Bₙ₊ₙ then Cᵩ = {}
    If Aₙ ≠ {} = Bₙ₊ₙ then Cᵩ = Aₙ is two.ended
    If Aₙ = {} ≠ Bₙ₊ₙ then Cᵩ = Bₙ₊ₙ is two ended
    If Aₙ ≠ {} ≠ Bₙ₊ₙ then
    min.Cᵩ = min.Aₙ
    max.Cᵩ = max.Bₙ₊ₙ
    and Cᵩ is two.ended

    Each subset Cᵩ of ⟦0,φ⟧ is two.ended.or.{}

    Therefore,
    if n is finite
    (each subset Aₙ of ⟦0,n⟧ is two.ended.or.{})
    and φ ≤ n+n
    (⟦0,φ⟧ ⊆ ⟦0,n+n⟧)
    then φ is finite
    (each subset Cᵩ of ⟦0,φ⟧ is two.ended.or.{})

    In particular,
    if n is finite and ω ≤ n+n
    then ω is finite.

    It is not true when
    dark numbers come into play.

    The only numbers which have come into play here
    are φ such that each subset of ⟦0,φ⟧ is two.ended.or.{}

    Even ω is shown to have
    each subset of ⟦0,ω⟧ is two.ended.or.{}
    Of course,
    the reason to show that falsehood about ω is
    to show that 'n is finite ∧ ω ≤ n+n' must be false.

    You (WM) probably did not intend to say that
    there are dark numbers δ such that
    each subset of ⟦0,δ⟧ is two.ended.or.{}

    Which of the various things you're saying are wrong?

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Mon Nov 4 22:15:03 2024
    Am 04.11.2024 um 22:10 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:
    On 11/4/2024 8:52 AM, Moebius wrote:
    Am 04.11.2024 um 12:34 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:

    I guess WM would think that taking a gallon of water out of an
    infinite pool of water would somehow make it less than.

    If you repeat that infinitely many times, it might. :-P

    The infinite pool is infinite so it can never run out? You can take out
    an infinite number of gallons, and the pool is still there in its
    infinite glory filled to the rim with brim ;^)... In the magic land of
    port foozle in the land of Zork?

    Depends.

    The "problem" is related to https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ross%E2%80%93Littlewood_paradox

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Mon Nov 4 22:08:46 2024
    On 11/4/24 12:24 PM, WM wrote:
    On 04.11.2024 13:26, Richard Damon wrote:

    Yes, we know if you will double them again, as we started with the
    assumption that we double ALL the number, and any even number will be
    reached from doubling the number that is one half of it and will be
    doubled again.

    Please mark the sentence which you suspect to be wrong:

    - All natural numbers exist.
    - The even numbers have only half of the substance(*) of the integers.

    Not a valid statement, as half of infinity is still infinity.

    - Multiplication of all elements of a set does not change the substance.

    (*) For every interval (0, 2n] the number E of even natnumbers is half
    of the number N of natnumbers: E/N = 1/2. For (0, oo] we obtain the
    limit of the sequence 1/2, 1/2, 1/2, ... which is 1/2. This is the ratio
    of the substances or, as Cantor called it, the reality.

    In other words, your logic can only deal with finite subsets of the
    infinite set, and thus isn't a system that can handle actual infinity.


    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Tue Nov 5 17:43:12 2024
    On 05.11.2024 04:08, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 11/4/24 12:24 PM, WM wrote:
    On 04.11.2024 13:26, Richard Damon wrote:

    Yes, we know if you will double them again, as we started with the
    assumption that we double ALL the number, and any even number will be
    reached from doubling the number that is one half of it and will be
    doubled again.

    Please mark the sentence which you suspect to be wrong:

    - All natural numbers exist.
    - The even numbers have only half of the substance(*) of the integers.

    Not a valid statement, as half of infinity is still infinity.

    Substance means number obtained from limit: 1/2, 1/2, 1/2, ... --> 1/2.

    - Multiplication of all elements of a set does not change the substance.

    (*) For every interval (0, 2n] the number E of even natnumbers is half
    of the number N of natnumbers: E/N = 1/2. For (0, oo] we obtain the
    limit of the sequence 1/2, 1/2, 1/2, ... which is 1/2. This is the
    ratio of the substances or, as Cantor called it, the reality.

    In other words, your logic can only deal with finite subsets of the
    infinite set

    It deals with limits.

    Regards, WM

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  • From joes@21:1/5 to All on Tue Nov 5 19:39:33 2024
    Am Mon, 04 Nov 2024 12:19:33 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 03.11.2024 23:12, joes wrote:
    Am Sun, 03 Nov 2024 18:00:18 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 03.11.2024 16:55, joes wrote:
    Am Sun, 03 Nov 2024 12:56:48 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 03.11.2024 09:50, joes wrote:
    pparently you do think that there is a natural n such that 2^n is
    infinite.
    If all naturals are there, then no further one is available. But
    doubling all yields a greater number than all.
    In actual infinity there is no way to avoid this.
    We don't need any further ones because we ALREADY HAVE ALL OF THEM,
    even including the doubles.
    But you have not what is done to all of them afterwards.
    Yes I have. The set of even numbers is a subset.
    It has only half of the reality of the natnumbers. But when doubling
    them, their full reality is maintained.

    You must be clairvoyant if you knew in advance whether something is
    done at all.
    I know I will get even numbers.
    But you will get larger even numbers than were multiplied.
    Not if you really multiply all numbers.

    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to joes on Wed Nov 6 11:41:47 2024
    On 05.11.2024 20:39, joes wrote:
    Am Mon, 04 Nov 2024 12:19:33 +0100 schrieb WM:

    You must be clairvoyant if you knew in advance whether something is
    done at all.
    I know I will get even numbers.
    But you will get larger even numbers than were multiplied.
    Not if you really multiply all numbers.

    In every case.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 6 06:46:26 2024
    On 11/5/24 11:43 AM, WM wrote:
    On 05.11.2024 04:08, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 11/4/24 12:24 PM, WM wrote:
    On 04.11.2024 13:26, Richard Damon wrote:

    Yes, we know if you will double them again, as we started with the
    assumption that we double ALL the number, and any even number will
    be reached from doubling the number that is one half of it and will
    be doubled again.

    Please mark the sentence which you suspect to be wrong:

    - All natural numbers exist.
    - The even numbers have only half of the substance(*) of the integers.

    Not a valid statement, as half of infinity is still infinity.

    Substance means number obtained from limit: 1/2, 1/2, 1/2, ... --> 1/2.

    So, all you are doing is proving that half of infinity is still
    infinity, and not less than itself.

    Finite logic just breaks in the infinite realm.


    - Multiplication of all elements of a set does not change the substance. >>>
    (*) For every interval (0, 2n] the number E of even natnumbers is
    half of the number N of natnumbers: E/N = 1/2. For (0, oo] we obtain
    the limit of the sequence 1/2, 1/2, 1/2, ... which is 1/2. This is
    the ratio of the substances or, as Cantor called it, the reality.

    In other words, your logic can only deal with finite subsets of the
    infinite set

    It deals with limits.


    But wrongly.

    Remember, but that same logic, there is not smallest unit fraction.

    Regards, WM

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  • From joes@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 6 11:31:35 2024
    Am Mon, 04 Nov 2024 12:28:44 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 03.11.2024 23:40, Chris M. Thomasson wrote:
    On 11/3/2024 3:56 AM, WM wrote:

    If all naturals are there, then no further one is available.
    Sigh. There are infinite natural numbers, there is no last largest one.
    Why can't you get this!
    Because Cantor applies all with no exception for enumerating purposes.
    Yes, and you can't seem to imagine the infinite whole.

    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

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  • From joes@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 6 13:21:25 2024
    Am Wed, 06 Nov 2024 11:41:47 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 05.11.2024 20:39, joes wrote:
    Am Mon, 04 Nov 2024 12:19:33 +0100 schrieb WM:

    You must be clairvoyant if you knew in advance whether something is
    done at all.
    I know I will get even numbers.
    But you will get larger even numbers than were multiplied.
    Not if you really multiply all numbers.
    In every case.
    In every finite case.
    If I start with 2 and keep doubling, I never leave N or reach omega.

    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to joes on Wed Nov 6 16:14:12 2024
    On 06.11.2024 12:31, joes wrote:
    Am Mon, 04 Nov 2024 12:28:44 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 03.11.2024 23:40, Chris M. Thomasson wrote:
    On 11/3/2024 3:56 AM, WM wrote:

    If all naturals are there, then no further one is available.
    Sigh. There are infinite natural numbers, there is no last largest one.
    Why can't you get this!
    Because Cantor applies all with no exception for enumerating purposes.
    Yes, and you can't seem to imagine the infinite whole.

    The matheologians who claim that after every natural number there are
    almost all natural numbers following can't imagine the whole ℕ.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Wed Nov 6 16:18:16 2024
    On 06.11.2024 12:46, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 11/5/24 11:43 AM, WM wrote:

    - All natural numbers exist.
    - The even numbers have only half of the substance(*) of the integers.

    Not a valid statement, as half of infinity is still infinity.

    Substance means number obtained from limit: 1/2, 1/2, 1/2, ... --> 1/2.

    So, all you are doing is proving that half of infinity is still

    half of infinity.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to joes on Wed Nov 6 16:48:13 2024
    On 06.11.2024 14:21, joes wrote:
    Am Wed, 06 Nov 2024 11:41:47 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 05.11.2024 20:39, joes wrote:
    Am Mon, 04 Nov 2024 12:19:33 +0100 schrieb WM:

    You must be clairvoyant if you knew in advance whether something is >>>>>> done at all.
    I know I will get even numbers.
    But you will get larger even numbers than were multiplied.
    Not if you really multiply all numbers.
    In every case.
    In every finite case.

    The infinite case is every finite case. What more could it be? Infinite
    natural numbers?

    If I start with 2 and keep doubling, I never leave N or reach omega.

    If you start with the greatest natural number that you can start with,
    you remain in ℕ. But if you double all, then you get transfinite
    numbers: [0, ω]*2 = [0, ω*2] but not your ugly fantasy [0, ω] U {ω*2}.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to FromTheRafters on Wed Nov 6 17:28:51 2024
    On 06.11.2024 17:00, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM brought next idea :
    On 06.11.2024 12:46, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 11/5/24 11:43 AM, WM wrote:

    - All natural numbers exist.
    - The even numbers have only half of the substance(*) of the
    integers.

    Not a valid statement, as half of infinity is still infinity.

    Substance means number obtained from limit: 1/2, 1/2, 1/2, ... --> 1/2. >>>
    So, all you are doing is proving that half of infinity is still

    half of infinity.

    Nope, a ray is the same size as a line.

    No. 1/2, 1/2, 1/2, ... --> 1/2. That is mathematics.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Thu Nov 7 01:03:03 2024
    Am 06.11.2024 um 22:00 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:
    On 11/6/2024 7:14 AM, WM wrote:

    The mathe[maticians] who claim that after every natural number there are
    almost all natural numbers

    are quite right.

    Hint: If n is a natural number, then it is "followed" by the infinitely
    many natural numbers n+1, n+2, n+3, ...

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  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Thu Nov 7 01:07:17 2024
    Am 06.11.2024 um 22:04 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:

    sum [series],

    1+2+3+4+5+6+...

    is not a natural number. :-P

    See: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Series_(mathematics)

    It still equals a natural number at every iteration.

    I guess, what you mean is:

    For all n e IN:

    1 + ... + n

    is a natural number (i.e. in IN).

    Yeah. (Simple proof by induction.)

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  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Thu Nov 7 01:12:53 2024
    Am 06.11.2024 um 22:01 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:

    You are so wrong it's a bit scary... ;^o

    No shit, Sherlock?!

    Have a look: https://i1.rgstatic.net/ii/profile.image/443228106301441-1482685223347_Q512/Wolfgang-Mueckenheim-2.jpg

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 6 21:27:08 2024
    On 11/6/24 10:18 AM, WM wrote:
    On 06.11.2024 12:46, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 11/5/24 11:43 AM, WM wrote:

    - All natural numbers exist.
    - The even numbers have only half of the substance(*) of the integers. >>>>
    Not a valid statement, as half of infinity is still infinity.

    Substance means number obtained from limit: 1/2, 1/2, 1/2, ... --> 1/2.

    So, all you are doing is proving that half of infinity is still

    half of infinity.

    Regards, WM


    No, infinity.

    It seems you only have half a mind, which makes you a half-wit.

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Moebius on Thu Nov 7 10:07:19 2024
    On 07.11.2024 01:03, Moebius wrote:
    Am 06.11.2024 um 22:00 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:
    On 11/6/2024 7:14 AM, WM wrote:

    The mathe[maticians] who claim that after every natural number there
    are almost all natural numbers

    are quite right.

    Hint: If n is a natural number, then it is "followed" by the infinitely
    many natural numbers n+1, n+2, n+3, ...

    Almost all remain outside of the bijection with the rationals? How many rationals remain outside too?

    Regards, WM

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  • From joes@21:1/5 to All on Thu Nov 7 14:20:00 2024
    Am Thu, 07 Nov 2024 10:07:19 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 07.11.2024 01:03, Moebius wrote:
    Am 06.11.2024 um 22:00 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:
    On 11/6/2024 7:14 AM, WM wrote:

    The mathe[maticians] who claim that after every natural number there
    are almost all natural numbers
    are quite right.
    Hint: If n is a natural number, then it is "followed" by the infinitely
    many natural numbers n+1, n+2, n+3, ...
    Almost all remain outside of the bijection with the rationals? How many rationals remain outside too?
    What the fuck are you talking about?

    --
    Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
    It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.

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  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Thu Nov 7 18:25:14 2024
    Am 07.11.2024 um 15:20 schrieb joes:
    Am Thu, 07 Nov 2024 10:07:19 +0100 schrieb WM:
    On 07.11.2024 01:03, Moebius wrote:
    On 11/6/2024 7:14 AM, WM wrote:

    The mathe[maticians] who claim that after every natural number there >>>>> are almost all natural numbers

    are quite right.

    Hint: If n is a natural number, then it is "followed" by the infinitely
    many natural numbers n+1, n+2, n+3, ...

    Almost all remain outside of the bijection with the rationals? How many
    rationals remain outside too? [WM]

    Huh?! WTF?!

    What the fuck are you talking about?

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  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Thu Nov 7 22:34:51 2024
    Am 07.11.2024 um 22:08 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:
    On 11/6/2024 4:07 PM, Moebius wrote:
    Am 06.11.2024 um 22:04 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:

    sum [series],

    1+2+3+4+5+6+...

    is not a natural number. :-P

    Since there is no largest natural number, the sum is a natural number?

    Nope. There simply is no "sum".

    See: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Series_(mathematics)

    It still equals a natural number at every iteration.

    Right. Using the usual math lingo (and notions):

    I guess, what you mean is:

    For all n e IN:

            1 + ... + n

    is a natural number (i.e. in IN).

    Yeah. (Simple proof by induction.)



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  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Fri Nov 8 00:05:48 2024
    Am 07.11.2024 um 23:29 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:
    On 11/7/2024 1:34 PM, Moebius wrote:
    Am 07.11.2024 um 22:08 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:
    On 11/6/2024 4:07 PM, Moebius wrote:
    Am 06.11.2024 um 22:04 schrieb Chris M. Thomasson:

    sum [series],

    1+2+3+4+5+6+...

    is not a natural number. :-P

    Since there is no largest natural number, the sum is a natural number?

    Nope. There simply is no "sum".

    I mean: there is no sum of _all_ the terms: 1, 2, 3, ...

    The [partial] sum keeps getting bigger and bigger

    Sure. But there is no sum of ALL natural numbers (i.e. n in IN).

    However, each iteration is a sum and is a natural number?

    Sure. Hint:

    For all n e IN:

    1 + ... + n

    is a natural number (i.e. in IN).

    (Simple proof by induction.)

    Nuff said.

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  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Sat Nov 9 03:08:24 2024
    Am 08.11.2024 um 00:05 schrieb Moebius:

    For all n e IN:

             1 + ... + n

    is a natural number (i.e. in IN).

    (Simple proof by induction.)

    Proof (by induction):

    1 is a natural number (Peano axiom).

    If 1 + ... + n e IN (with n e IN), then 1 + ... + n + (n+1) e IN, since
    n+1 e IN if n e IN (Peano axiom) and m + n e IN if m,n e IN (->proof by induction). qed

    .
    .
    .

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  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Sat Nov 9 03:10:46 2024
    Am 08.11.2024 um 00:05 schrieb Moebius:

    For all n e IN:

             1 + ... + n

    is a natural number (i.e. in IN).

    (Simple proof by induction.)

    Proof (by induction):

    1 is a natural number (Peano axiom).

    If 1 + ... + n e IN (with n e IN), then 1 + ... + n + (n+1) e IN, since
    n+1 e IN if n e IN (Peano axiom and def. of addition) and m + n e IN if
    m,n e IN (->proof by induction). qed

    .
    .
    .

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