• Log i =?UTF-8?Q?=3D=20=30?=

    From Richard Hachel@21:1/5 to All on Sat May 24 19:26:05 2025
    Doctor Hachel said :

    Log i = 0

    i is a second root of f(x)=Log i

    N.B. Log is ln.

    R.H.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From sobriquet@21:1/5 to All on Sun May 25 05:07:38 2025
    Op 24/05/2025 om 21:26 schreef Richard Hachel:
    Doctor Hachel said :

    Log i = 0

    i is a second root of f(x)=Log i

    N.B. Log is ln.

    R.H.



    Somehow I have more confidence in wolfram alpha than a random usenet
    crackpot.

    https://www.wolframalpha.com/input?i=ln%28i%29

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Hachel@21:1/5 to All on Sun May 25 12:21:17 2025
    Le 25/05/2025 à 05:07, sobriquet a écrit :
    Op 24/05/2025 om 21:26 schreef Richard Hachel:
    Doctor Hachel said :

    Log i = 0

    i is a second root of f(x)=Log i

    N.B. Log is ln.

    R.H.



    Somehow I have more confidence in wolfram alpha than a random usenet crackpot.

    https://www.wolframalpha.com/input?i=ln%28i%29

    You have every right to your certainties.

    R.H.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From sobriquet@21:1/5 to All on Sun May 25 15:02:35 2025
    Op 25/05/2025 om 14:21 schreef Richard Hachel:
    Le 25/05/2025 à 05:07, sobriquet a écrit :
    Op 24/05/2025 om 21:26 schreef Richard Hachel:
    Doctor Hachel said :

    Log i = 0

    i is a second root of f(x)=Log i

    N.B. Log is ln.

    R.H.



    Somehow I have more confidence in wolfram alpha than a random usenet
    crackpot.

    https://www.wolframalpha.com/input?i=ln%28i%29

    You have every right to your certainties.

    R.H.

    There is no certainty in math. But when you encounter conflicting claims
    online you have to assess the probabilities that either side is wrong in
    a nuanced way, taking into account various sources of information and
    how they justify their claims and whether their approach tends to yield
    useful results in practice (like technology made possible by scientific insights and the math that provides the conceptual underpinnings).

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Richard Hachel@21:1/5 to All on Sun May 25 12:19:37 2025
    Le 25/05/2025 à 01:27, Ross Finlayson a écrit :
    On 05/24/2025 12:26 PM, Richard Hachel wrote:
    Doctor Hachel said :

    Log i = 0

    i is a second root of f(x)=Log i

    N.B. Log is ln.

    R.H.


    Take a look at Lambert's W(0) and W(1), ....

    (-i) ^ 2 = -1

    Absolutely, (-i)²= -1.

    BUT :

    (-i)³= 1

    (-i)⁴= -1

    (-i)⁵= 1

    -i= 1

    i³= -1

    i⁴= -1

    Log (i) = 0

    Log (-i)= 0

    R.H.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From efji@21:1/5 to All on Sun May 25 16:58:22 2025
    Le 25/05/2025 à 15:02, sobriquet a écrit :
    There is no certainty in math. But when you encounter conflicting claims

    Well, that's exactly the opposite :)
    There is nothing but certainties in math, since everything is proved in
    a non-discutable way.
    And there are open problems and conjectures, that are not been proven
    yet. But of course nothing at the low student level of the poor dumb
    french man.

    --
    F.J.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From sobriquet@21:1/5 to All on Sun May 25 17:50:11 2025
    Op 25/05/2025 om 16:58 schreef efji:
    Le 25/05/2025 à 15:02, sobriquet a écrit :
    There is no certainty in math. But when you encounter conflicting claims

    Well, that's exactly the opposite :)
    There is nothing but certainties in math, since everything is proved in
    a non-discutable way.

    Not really.. for instance, there are people who reject proofs by
    contradiction, so some proofs might be acceptable to some while being
    rejected by others.
    Also, things that used to be considered obviously true, like the
    shortest distance between two points being a straight line have later
    become uncertain (with the potential curvature of geometry as opposed to
    flat geometry).
    And there is evidence that we can't even have a completely reliable
    system where we can prove everything that is true and nothing that is
    false, since Gödel has shown that any formal system that includes basic arithmetic must necessarily be incomplete.


    And there are open problems and conjectures, that are not been proven
    yet. But of course nothing at the low student level of the poor dumb
    french man.


    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From efji@21:1/5 to All on Sun May 25 18:03:53 2025
    Le 25/05/2025 à 17:50, sobriquet a écrit :
    Op 25/05/2025 om 16:58 schreef efji:
    Le 25/05/2025 à 15:02, sobriquet a écrit :
    There is no certainty in math. But when you encounter conflicting claims

    Well, that's exactly the opposite :)
    There is nothing but certainties in math, since everything is proved
    in a non-discutable way.

    Not really.. for instance, there are people who reject proofs by contradiction, so some proofs might be acceptable to some while being rejected by others.
    Also, things that used to be considered obviously true, like the
    shortest distance between two points being a straight line have later
    become uncertain (with the potential curvature of geometry as opposed to
    flat geometry).
    And there is evidence that we can't even have a completely reliable
    system where we can prove everything that is true and nothing that is
    false, since Gödel has shown that any formal system that includes basic arithmetic must necessarily be incomplete.

    Well, that's true about Gödel's theorem: it says that there exists some propositions that cannot be proven true or false. It does not imply that
    what is proved can be "uncertain"!

    In practice, what we call "maths" in 2025 is totally proved in a
    rigorous way, with the proper hypothesis clearly given. The famous
    example of the "straight line" is historical and is related to a period
    of time where the logical basis of maths where not strongly established.
    We are not in the XIX's century any more!

    99.9999% of mathematicians accept the proofs by contradiction,
    and I really wonder what is the point of the remaining 0.0001% :)

    --
    F.J.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From sobriquet@21:1/5 to All on Sun May 25 18:17:39 2025
    Op 25/05/2025 om 18:03 schreef efji:
    Le 25/05/2025 à 17:50, sobriquet a écrit :
    Op 25/05/2025 om 16:58 schreef efji:
    Le 25/05/2025 à 15:02, sobriquet a écrit :
    There is no certainty in math. But when you encounter conflicting
    claims

    Well, that's exactly the opposite :)
    There is nothing but certainties in math, since everything is proved
    in a non-discutable way.

    Not really.. for instance, there are people who reject proofs by
    contradiction, so some proofs might be acceptable to some while being
    rejected by others.
    Also, things that used to be considered obviously true, like the
    shortest distance between two points being a straight line have later
    become uncertain (with the potential curvature of geometry as opposed
    to flat geometry).
    And there is evidence that we can't even have a completely reliable
    system where we can prove everything that is true and nothing that is
    false, since Gödel has shown that any formal system that includes
    basic arithmetic must necessarily be incomplete.

    Well, that's true about Gödel's theorem: it says that there exists some propositions that cannot be proven true or false. It does not imply that
    what is proved can be "uncertain"!

    In practice, what we call "maths" in 2025 is totally proved in a
    rigorous way, with the proper hypothesis clearly given. The famous
    example of the "straight line" is historical and is related to a period
    of time where the logical basis of maths where not strongly established.
    We are not in the XIX's century any more!

    99.9999% of mathematicians accept the proofs by contradiction,
    and I really wonder what is the point of the remaining 0.0001% :)


    But the same holds for science. It's reasonable to assume that theories
    like evolution are proven beyond reasonable doubt, but philosophically speaking, there is no certainty in science.
    So for practical purposes I think we can agree that mathematical
    theorems are as close to certainty as we can ever hope to get, but the
    entire status of math hasn't conclusively been established, since people
    can't even work out whether mathematical abstractions like numbers
    exists and whether they have the same ontological status as physical
    things like electrons.

    Math is certainly the most durable substance in the mental realm.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From efji@21:1/5 to All on Sun May 25 19:03:33 2025
    Le 25/05/2025 à 18:17, sobriquet a écrit :
    Op 25/05/2025 om 18:03 schreef efji:
    Le 25/05/2025 à 17:50, sobriquet a écrit :
    Op 25/05/2025 om 16:58 schreef efji:
    Le 25/05/2025 à 15:02, sobriquet a écrit :
    There is no certainty in math. But when you encounter conflicting
    claims

    Well, that's exactly the opposite :)
    There is nothing but certainties in math, since everything is proved
    in a non-discutable way.

    Not really.. for instance, there are people who reject proofs by
    contradiction, so some proofs might be acceptable to some while being
    rejected by others.
    Also, things that used to be considered obviously true, like the
    shortest distance between two points being a straight line have later
    become uncertain (with the potential curvature of geometry as opposed
    to flat geometry).
    And there is evidence that we can't even have a completely reliable
    system where we can prove everything that is true and nothing that is
    false, since Gödel has shown that any formal system that includes
    basic arithmetic must necessarily be incomplete.

    Well, that's true about Gödel's theorem: it says that there exists
    some propositions that cannot be proven true or false. It does not
    imply that what is proved can be "uncertain"!

    In practice, what we call "maths" in 2025 is totally proved in a
    rigorous way, with the proper hypothesis clearly given. The famous
    example of the "straight line" is historical and is related to a
    period of time where the logical basis of maths where not strongly
    established. We are not in the XIX's century any more!

    99.9999% of mathematicians accept the proofs by contradiction,
    and I really wonder what is the point of the remaining 0.0001% :)


    But the same holds for science. It's reasonable to assume that theories
    like evolution are proven beyond reasonable doubt, but philosophically speaking, there is no certainty in science.

    Yes, there is no certainty in science, EXCEPT in maths !
    Take any maths book or article, take any proposition entitled "Theorem",
    you know that it is true forever, without any doubt and without any
    chance that somebody in 1000 years in the future could disprove it,
    whatever "science" will be at this time.


    --
    F.J.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From sobriquet@21:1/5 to All on Sun May 25 19:17:30 2025
    Op 25/05/2025 om 19:03 schreef efji:
    Le 25/05/2025 à 18:17, sobriquet a écrit :
    Op 25/05/2025 om 18:03 schreef efji:
    Le 25/05/2025 à 17:50, sobriquet a écrit :
    Op 25/05/2025 om 16:58 schreef efji:
    Le 25/05/2025 à 15:02, sobriquet a écrit :
    There is no certainty in math. But when you encounter conflicting
    claims

    Well, that's exactly the opposite :)
    There is nothing but certainties in math, since everything is
    proved in a non-discutable way.

    Not really.. for instance, there are people who reject proofs by
    contradiction, so some proofs might be acceptable to some while
    being rejected by others.
    Also, things that used to be considered obviously true, like the
    shortest distance between two points being a straight line have
    later become uncertain (with the potential curvature of geometry as
    opposed to flat geometry).
    And there is evidence that we can't even have a completely reliable
    system where we can prove everything that is true and nothing that
    is false, since Gödel has shown that any formal system that includes
    basic arithmetic must necessarily be incomplete.

    Well, that's true about Gödel's theorem: it says that there exists
    some propositions that cannot be proven true or false. It does not
    imply that what is proved can be "uncertain"!

    In practice, what we call "maths" in 2025 is totally proved in a
    rigorous way, with the proper hypothesis clearly given. The famous
    example of the "straight line" is historical and is related to a
    period of time where the logical basis of maths where not strongly
    established. We are not in the XIX's century any more!

    99.9999% of mathematicians accept the proofs by contradiction,
    and I really wonder what is the point of the remaining 0.0001% :)


    But the same holds for science. It's reasonable to assume that theories
    like evolution are proven beyond reasonable doubt, but philosophically
    speaking, there is no certainty in science.

    Yes, there is no certainty in science, EXCEPT in maths !
    Take any maths book or article, take any proposition entitled "Theorem",
    you know that it is true forever, without any doubt and without any
    chance that somebody in 1000 years in the future could disprove it,
    whatever "science" will be at this time.



    Humans are fallible creatures. Math communities consist of humans.
    Conclusion, there is no certainty in math. Though of course it's
    extremely unlikely for something to turn out to be false if its proof
    has been verified and accepted by the entire community of mathematicians
    and has stood the test of time. But there are also other factors
    involved. For instance the proof could consist of terabytes of data, so
    in that case we might increase our confidence level if we formalize the
    proof so it gets checked independently by a computer.

    In science things approach certainty as results get independently
    replicated and confirmed and we have various strategies to eliminate
    errors (like double-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled,
    peer-reviewed, independently replicated studies).

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From efji@21:1/5 to All on Sun May 25 20:41:15 2025
    Le 25/05/2025 à 19:17, sobriquet a écrit :
    Humans are fallible creatures. Math communities consist of humans. Conclusion, there is no certainty in math. Though of course it's
    extremely unlikely for something to turn out to be false if its proof
    has been verified and accepted by the entire community of mathematicians
    and has stood the test of time. But there are also other factors
    involved. For instance the proof could consist of terabytes of data, so
    in that case we might increase our confidence level if we formalize the
    proof so it gets checked independently by a computer.

    It seems that your level in mathematics may not be very advanced, and
    you appear to be repeating, somewhat awkwardly, what you’ve read in mainstream media.

    No, proofs of theorems generally do not involve "terabytes of data" :)

    ChatGPT gives the following rough evaluations:

    * 3 to 5 millions of theorems proved since the beginning of humanity,
    some of them with multiple proofs (e.g. Pythagorean Theorem: more than
    400 independent proofs).

    * 250000 to 350000 theorems published last year (between 100000 and
    120000 maths publications in peer reviews).

    Among these millions of theorems, only a few involve a computer to help
    the proof. The first one was the "4 colors Theorem" in 1976 that used a computer to check 1936 identified configurations, too long to check
    manually.

    Each year, a few theorems use computers to be proved, either using
    "proof assistants" that formalize and check the logic of hundreds of
    pages of inductions, or, like in the case of the 4 colors Theorem, check
    a finite number of remaining cases (possibly big) while the main human
    proof says something like "for n>N, blablabla".

    But although the mainstream media talk a lot about them, they are
    totally marginal in the crowd of new theorems.


    --
    F.J.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From sobriquet@21:1/5 to All on Mon May 26 04:22:23 2025
    Op 25/05/2025 om 20:41 schreef efji:
    Le 25/05/2025 à 19:17, sobriquet a écrit :
    Humans are fallible creatures. Math communities consist of humans.
    Conclusion, there is no certainty in math. Though of course it's
    extremely unlikely for something to turn out to be false if its proof
    has been verified and accepted by the entire community of
    mathematicians and has stood the test of time. But there are also
    other factors involved. For instance the proof could consist of
    terabytes of data, so in that case we might increase our confidence
    level if we formalize the
    proof so it gets checked independently by a computer.

    It seems that your level in mathematics may not be very advanced, and
    you appear to be repeating, somewhat awkwardly, what you’ve read in mainstream media.

    No, proofs of theorems generally do not involve "terabytes of data" :)

    ChatGPT gives the following rough evaluations:

    * 3 to 5 millions of theorems proved since the beginning of humanity,
    some of them with multiple proofs (e.g. Pythagorean Theorem: more than
    400 independent proofs).

    * 250000 to 350000 theorems published last year (between 100000 and
    120000 maths publications in peer reviews).

    Among these millions of theorems, only a few involve a computer to help
    the proof. The first one was the "4 colors Theorem" in 1976 that used a computer to check 1936 identified configurations, too long to check
    manually.

    Each year, a few theorems use computers to be proved, either using
    "proof assistants" that formalize and check the logic of hundreds of
    pages of inductions, or, like in the case of the 4 colors Theorem, check
    a finite number of remaining cases (possibly big) while the main human
    proof says something like "for n>N, blablabla".

    But although the mainstream media talk a lot about them, they are
    totally marginal in the crowd of new theorems.



    I'm just interested in math and science at an abstract level from a
    historical perspective and how technology (AI in particular) has the
    potential to transform education and the dissemination/accessibility of knowledge and understanding.

    https://www.quantamagazine.org/mathematical-beauty-truth-and-proof-in-the-age-of-ai-20250430/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From efji@21:1/5 to All on Mon May 26 11:28:10 2025
    Le 26/05/2025 à 04:22, sobriquet a écrit :


    I'm just interested in math and science at an abstract level from a historical perspective and how technology (AI in particular) has the potential to transform education and the dissemination/accessibility of knowledge and understanding.

    https://www.quantamagazine.org/mathematical-beauty-truth-and-proof-in- the-age-of-ai-20250430/


    Thanks for the link. Interesting paper, especially for its last part
    about the future of mathematics: are the mathematicians going to become,
    in a close future, like literature department researchers, not producing results any more but commenting and trying to understand the results of AI?

    I was not aware of the large collaborative project launched by Terence
    Tao on "magmas", that has been completed a few weeks ago after the test
    of 22 028 942 = 4694*(4694-1) possible equational laws, both manually
    and automatically. The preliminary paper is here : https://teorth.github.io/equational_theories/paper.pdf

    --
    F.J.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to efji on Mon May 26 16:32:04 2025
    On 25.05.2025 16:58, efji wrote:
    Le 25/05/2025 à 15:02, sobriquet a écrit :
    There is no certainty in math. But when you encounter conflicting claims

    Well, that's exactly the opposite :)
    There is nothing but certainties in math, since everything is proved in
    a non-discutable way.


    Is this a non-discutable proof?

    {1} has infinitely many (ℵo) successors.
    If {1, 2, 3, ..., n} has infinitely many (ℵo) successors, then {1, 2, 3,
    ..., n, n+1} has infinitely many (ℵo) successors, for every accessible natural number.

    Regard, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to efji on Mon May 26 16:36:21 2025
    On 25.05.2025 19:03, efji wrote:
    Le 25/05/2025 à 18:17, sobriquet a écrit :
    Op 25/05/2025 om 18:03 schreef efji:
    Le 25/05/2025 à 17:50, sobriquet a écrit :
    Op 25/05/2025 om 16:58 schreef efji:
    Le 25/05/2025 à 15:02, sobriquet a écrit :
    There is no certainty in math. But when you encounter conflicting
    claims

    Well, that's exactly the opposite :)
    There is nothing but certainties in math, since everything is
    proved in a non-discutable way.

    Not really.. for instance, there are people who reject proofs by
    contradiction, so some proofs might be acceptable to some while
    being rejected by others.
    Also, things that used to be considered obviously true, like the
    shortest distance between two points being a straight line have
    later become uncertain (with the potential curvature of geometry as
    opposed to flat geometry).
    And there is evidence that we can't even have a completely reliable
    system where we can prove everything that is true and nothing that
    is false, since Gödel has shown that any formal system that includes
    basic arithmetic must necessarily be incomplete.

    Well, that's true about Gödel's theorem: it says that there exists
    some propositions that cannot be proven true or false. It does not
    imply that what is proved can be "uncertain"!

    In practice, what we call "maths" in 2025 is totally proved in a
    rigorous way, with the proper hypothesis clearly given. The famous
    example of the "straight line" is historical and is related to a
    period of time where the logical basis of maths where not strongly
    established. We are not in the XIX's century any more!

    99.9999% of mathematicians accept the proofs by contradiction,
    and I really wonder what is the point of the remaining 0.0001% :)


    But the same holds for science. It's reasonable to assume that theories
    like evolution are proven beyond reasonable doubt, but philosophically
    speaking, there is no certainty in science.

    Yes, there is no certainty in science, EXCEPT in maths !
    Take any maths book or article, take any proposition entitled "Theorem",
    you know that it is true forever, without any doubt and without any
    chance that somebody in 1000 years in the future could disprove it,
    whatever "science" will be at this time.

    That is wrong. Present mathematics simply assumes that all natural
    numbers can be used for counting. But that is wrong.

    Regards, WM



    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From WM@21:1/5 to FromTheRafters on Mon May 26 22:05:18 2025
    On 26.05.2025 16:59, FromTheRafters wrote:
    on 5/26/2025, WM supposed :
    On 25.05.2025 19:03, efji wrote:

    Yes, there is no certainty in science, EXCEPT in maths !
    Take any maths book or article, take any proposition entitled
    "Theorem", you know that it is true forever, without any doubt and
    without any chance that somebody in 1000 years in the future could
    disprove it, whatever "science" will be at this time.

    That is wrong. Present mathematics simply assumes that all natural
    numbers can be used for counting. But that is wrong.

    No, you simply misunderstand what countability means.

    "If we think the numbers p/q in such an order [...] then every number
    p/q comes at an absolutely fixed position of a simple infinite sequence"
    [E. Zermelo: "Georg Cantor – Gesammelte Abhandlungen mathematischen und philosophischen Inhalts", Springer, Berlin (1932) p. 126]

    "The infinite sequence thus defined has the peculiar property to contain
    the positive rational numbers completely, and each of them only once at
    a determined place." [G. Cantor, letter to R. Lipschitz (19 Nov 1883)]

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From efji@21:1/5 to All on Mon May 26 22:25:46 2025
    Le 26/05/2025 à 16:36, WM a écrit :
    That is wrong. Present mathematics simply assumes that all natural
    numbers can be used for counting. But that is wrong.

    What's the point ?
    It is the DEFINITION of "counting". A countable infinite set IS a set
    equipped with a bijection onto \N.

    --
    F.J.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Python@21:1/5 to All on Mon May 26 20:48:33 2025
    Le 26/05/2025 à 22:25, efji a écrit :
    Le 26/05/2025 à 16:36, WM a écrit :
    That is wrong. Present mathematics simply assumes that all natural
    numbers can be used for counting. But that is wrong.

    What's the point ?
    It is the DEFINITION of "counting". A countable infinite set IS a set equipped with a bijection onto \N.

    Is it the first time you encounter "Professor" (unfortunately) Wolfgang Mückenheim from Hochschule Augsburg?

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From efji@21:1/5 to All on Mon May 26 22:23:45 2025
    Le 26/05/2025 à 16:32, WM a écrit :
    On 25.05.2025 16:58, efji wrote:
    Le 25/05/2025 à 15:02, sobriquet a écrit :
    There is no certainty in math. But when you encounter conflicting claims

    Well, that's exactly the opposite :)
    There is nothing but certainties in math, since everything is proved
    in a non-discutable way.


    Is this a non-discutable proof?

    {1} has infinitely many (ℵo) successors.
    If {1, 2, 3, ..., n} has infinitely many (ℵo) successors, then {1, 2,
    3, ..., n, n+1} has infinitely many (ℵo) successors, for every
    accessible natural number.

    What's the point ???

    --
    F.J.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to efji on Tue May 27 16:50:16 2025
    On 26.05.2025 22:25, efji wrote:
    Le 26/05/2025 à 16:36, WM a écrit :
    That is wrong. Present mathematics simply assumes that all natural
    numbers can be used for counting. But that is wrong.

    What's the point ?
    It is the DEFINITION of "counting". A countable infinite set IS a set equipped with a bijection onto \N.

    This bijection does not exist because most natural numbers cannot be distinguished as a simple argument shows.

    All natural numbers can be manipulated collectively, for instance
    subtracted: ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...} = { }. Here all have disappeared.

    Could all natural numbers be distinguished, then this subtraction could
    also happen but, caused by the well-order, a last one would disappear.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From WM@21:1/5 to FromTheRafters on Tue May 27 21:37:33 2025
    On 27.05.2025 18:05, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM wrote :
    On 26.05.2025 22:25, efji wrote:
    Le 26/05/2025 à 16:36, WM a écrit :
    That is wrong. Present mathematics simply assumes that all natural numbers can be used for counting. But that is wrong.

    What's the point ?
    It is the DEFINITION of "counting". A countable infinite set IS a
    set equipped with a bijection onto \N.

    This bijection does not exist because most natural numbers cannot be distinguished as a simple argument shows.

    Bijected elements need not be distinguished, it is enough to show a
    bijection.

    You mean it is enough to believe in a bijection?

    According to Cantor the infinite sequence thus defined must have the
    property to contain the positive rational numbers completely, and each
    of them only once at a determined place.

    That requires moe than belief. But your belief can be shattered by the

    X-O-Matrices

    All positive fractions

    1/1, 1/2, 1/3, 1/4, ...
    2/1, 2/2, 2/3, 2/4, ...
    3/1, 3/2, 3/3, 3/4, ...
    4/1, 4/2, 4/3, 4/4, ...
    ...

    can be indexed by the Cantor function k = (m + n - 1)(m + n - 2)/2 + m
    which attaches the index k to the fraction m/n in Cantor's sequence

    1/1, 1/2, 2/1, 1/3, 2/2, 3/1, 1/4, 2/3, 3/2, 4/1, 1/5, 2/4, 3/3, 4/2,
    5/1, 1/6, 2/5, 3/4, ... .

    Its terms can be represented by matrices. When we attach all indeXes k =
    1, 2, 3, ..., for clarity represented by X, to the integer fractions m/1
    and indicate missing indexes by hOles O, then we get the matrix M(0) as starting position:

    XOOO... XXOO... XXOO... XXXO...
    XOOO... OOOO... XOOO... XOOO...
    XOOO... XOOO... OOOO... OOOO...
    XOOO... XOOO... XOOO... OOOO...
    M(0) M(2) M(3) M(4) ...

    M(1) is the same as M(0) because index 1 remains at 1/1. In M(2) index 2
    from 2/1 has been attached to 1/2. In M(3) index 3 from 3/1 has been
    attached to 2/1. In M(4) index 4 from 4/1 has been attached to 1/3. Successively all fractions of the sequence get indexed. In the limit,
    denoted by M(∞), we see no fraction without index remaining. Note that
    the only difference to Cantor's enumeration is that Cantor does not
    render account for the source of the indices.

    Every X, representing the index k, when taken from its present fraction
    m/n, is replaced by the O taken from the fraction to be indexed by this
    k. Its last carrier m/n will be indexed later by another index.
    Important is that, when continuing, no O can leave the matrix as long as
    any index X blocks the only possible drain, i.e., the first column. And
    if leaving, where should it settle?

    As long as indexes are in the drain, no O has left. The presence of all
    O indicates that almost all fractions are not indexed. And after all
    indexes have been issued and the drain has become free, no indexes are available which could index the remaining matrix elements, yet covered by O.

    It should go without saying that by rearranging the X of M(0) never a
    complete covering can be realized. Lossless transpositions cannot suffer losses. The limit matrix M(∞) only shows what should have happened when
    all fractions were indexed. Logic proves that this cannot have happened
    by exchanges. The only explanation for finally seeing M(∞) is that there
    are invisible matrix positions, existing already at the start. Obviously
    by exchanging O and X no O can leave the matrix, but the O can disappear
    by moving without end, from visible to invisible positions.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Alan Mackenzie@21:1/5 to FromTheRafters on Tue May 27 19:49:19 2025
    FromTheRafters <FTR@nomail.afraid.org> wrote:
    WM wrote :
    On 26.05.2025 22:25, efji wrote:
    Le 26/05/2025 à 16:36, WM a écrit :
    That is wrong. Present mathematics simply assumes that all natural
    numbers can be used for counting. But that is wrong.

    What's the point ?
    It is the DEFINITION of "counting". A countable infinite set IS a set
    equipped with a bijection onto \N.

    This bijection does not exist because most natural numbers cannot be
    distinguished as a simple argument shows.

    Bijected elements need not be distinguished, it is enough to show a bijection.

    Why are you working together with WM to hijack this thread from another
    crank?

    WM's wierd ideas have been thoroughly discredited on this forum. Why
    cooperate with him to create another monster thread which goes nowhere?

    --
    Alan Mackenzie (Nuremberg, Germany).

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From WM@21:1/5 to FromTheRafters on Tue May 27 21:34:48 2025
    On 27.05.2025 18:05, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM wrote :
    On 26.05.2025 22:25, efji wrote:
    Le 26/05/2025 à 16:36, WM a écrit :
    That is wrong. Present mathematics simply assumes that all natural
    numbers can be used for counting. But that is wrong.

    What's the point ?
    It is the DEFINITION of "counting". A countable infinite set IS a set
    equipped with a bijection onto \N.

    This bijection does not exist because most natural numbers cannot be
    distinguished as a simple argument shows.

    Bijected elements need not be distinguished, it is enough to show a bijection.

    You mean it is enough to believe in a bijection?

    According to Cantor the infinite sequence thus defined must have the
    property to contain the positive rational numbers completely, and each
    of them only once at a determined place.

    That requires moe than belief. But your belief can be shattered by the

    X-O-Matrices

    All positive fractions

    1/1, 1/2, 1/3, 1/4, ...
    2/1, 2/2, 2/3, 2/4, ...
    3/1, 3/2, 3/3, 3/4, ...
    4/1, 4/2, 4/3, 4/4, ...
    ...

    can be indexed by the Cantor function k = (m + n - 1)(m + n - 2)/2 + m
    which attaches the index k to the fraction m/n in Cantor's sequence

    1/1, 1/2, 2/1, 1/3, 2/2, 3/1, 1/4, 2/3, 3/2, 4/1, 1/5, 2/4, 3/3, 4/2,
    5/1, 1/6, 2/5, 3/4, ... .

    Its terms can be represented by matrices. When we attach all indeXes k =
    1, 2, 3, ..., for clarity represented by X, to the integer fractions m/1
    and indicate missing indexes by hOles O, then we get the matrix M(0) as starting position:

    XOOO... XXOO... XXOO... XXXO... ... XXXX...
    XOOO... OOOO... XOOO... XOOO... ... XXXX...
    XOOO... XOOO... OOOO... OOOO... ... XXXX...
    XOOO... XOOO... XOOO... OOOO... ... XXXX...
    ... ... ... ... ...
    M(0) M(2) M(3) M(4) M(∞)

    M(1) is the same as M(0) because index 1 remains at 1/1. In M(2) index 2
    from 2/1 has been attached to 1/2. In M(3) index 3 from 3/1 has been
    attached to 2/1. In M(4) index 4 from 4/1 has been attached to 1/3. Successively all fractions of the sequence get indexed. In the limit,
    denoted by M(∞), we see no fraction without index remaining. Note that
    the only difference to Cantor's enumeration is that Cantor does not
    render account for the source of the indices.

    Every X, representing the index k, when taken from its present fraction
    m/n, is replaced by the O taken from the fraction to be indexed by this
    k. Its last carrier m/n will be indexed later by another index.
    Important is that, when continuing, no O can leave the matrix as long as
    any index X blocks the only possible drain, i.e., the first column. And
    if leaving, where should it settle?

    As long as indexes are in the drain, no O has left. The presence of all
    O indicates that almost all fractions are not indexed. And after all
    indexes have been issued and the drain has become free, no indexes are available which could index the remaining matrix elements, yet covered by O.

    It should go without saying that by rearranging the X of M(0) never a
    complete covering can be realized. Lossless transpositions cannot suffer losses. The limit matrix M(∞) only shows what should have happened when
    all fractions were indexed. Logic proves that this cannot have happened
    by exchanges. The only explanation for finally seeing M(∞) is that there
    are invisible matrix positions, existing already at the start. Obviously
    by exchanging O and X no O can leave the matrix, but the O can disappear
    by moving without end, from visible to invisible positions.

    Regards, WM

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    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Alan Mackenzie on Tue May 27 22:10:48 2025
    On 27.05.2025 21:49, Alan Mackenzie wrote:

    Why are you working together with WM to hijack this thread from another crank?

    WM's wierd ideas have been thoroughly discredited on this forum.

    You confuse discrediting and not understanding.

    Why
    cooperate with him to create another monster thread which goes nowhere?

    It goes to become understood by those who try:

    All natural numbers can be manipulated collectively, for instance
    subtracted: ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...} = { }. Here all have disappeared.

    Could all natural numbers be distinguished, then this subtraction could
    also happen but, caused by the well-order, a last one would disappear.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Chris M. Thomasson on Tue May 27 22:13:53 2025
    On 27.05.2025 22:07, Chris M. Thomasson wrote:
    On 5/27/2025 12:34 PM, WM wrote:
    On 27.05.2025 18:05, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM wrote :
    On 26.05.2025 22:25, efji wrote:
    Le 26/05/2025 à 16:36, WM a écrit :
    That is wrong. Present mathematics simply assumes that all natural >>>>>> numbers can be used for counting. But that is wrong.

    What's the point ?
    It is the DEFINITION of "counting". A countable infinite set IS a
    set equipped with a bijection onto \N.

    This bijection does not exist because most natural numbers cannot be
    distinguished as a simple argument shows.

    Bijected elements need not be distinguished, it is enough to show a
    bijection.

    You mean it is enough to believe in a bijection?
    [...]

    Either the bijection works or it doesn't. For instance, Cantor Pairing
    works with any unsigned integer.

    It does not.

    All positive fractions

    1/1, 1/2, 1/3, 1/4, ...
    2/1, 2/2, 2/3, 2/4, ...
    3/1, 3/2, 3/3, 3/4, ...
    4/1, 4/2, 4/3, 4/4, ...
    ...

    can be indexed by the Cantor function k = (m + n - 1)(m + n - 2)/2 + m
    which attaches the index k to the fraction m/n in Cantor's sequence

    1/1, 1/2, 2/1, 1/3, 2/2, 3/1, 1/4, 2/3, 3/2, 4/1, 1/5, 2/4, 3/3, 4/2,
    5/1, 1/6, 2/5, 3/4, ... .

    Its terms can be represented by matrices. When we attach all indeXes k =
    1, 2, 3, ..., for clarity represented by X, to the integer fractions m/1
    and indicate missing indexes by hOles O, then we get the matrix M(0) as starting position:

    XOOO... XXOO... XXOO... XXXO...
    XOOO... OOOO... XOOO... XOOO...
    XOOO... XOOO... OOOO... OOOO...
    XOOO... XOOO... XOOO... OOOO...
    M(0) M(2) M(3) M(4) ...

    M(1) is the same as M(0) because index 1 remains at 1/1. In M(2) index 2
    from 2/1 has been attached to 1/2. In M(3) index 3 from 3/1 has been
    attached to 2/1. In M(4) index 4 from 4/1 has been attached to 1/3. Successively all fractions of the sequence get indexed. In the limit we
    see no fraction without index remaining. Note that the only difference
    to Cantor's enumeration is that Cantor does not render account for the
    source of the indices.

    Every X, representing the index k, when taken from its present fraction
    m/n, is replaced by the O taken from the fraction to be indexed by this
    k. Its last carrier m/n will be indexed later by another index.
    Important is that, when continuing, no O can leave the matrix as long as
    any index X blocks the only possible drain, i.e., the first column. And
    if leaving, where should it settle?

    As long as indexes are in the drain, no O has left. The presence of all
    O indicates that almost all fractions are not indexed. And after all
    indexes have been issued and the drain has become free, no indexes are available which could index the remaining matrix elements, yet covered by O.

    It should go without saying that by rearranging the X of M(0) never a
    complete covering can be realized.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Chris M. Thomasson on Thu May 29 14:16:19 2025
    On 29.05.2025 01:14, Chris M. Thomasson wrote:

    Huh? Show me one unsigned integer that Cantor Pairing does not work
    with?

    That is not possible because they are dark. But their existence can be
    proven:

    All natural numbers can be manipulated collectively, for instance
    subtracted: ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...} = { }. Here all numbers have disappeared.

    Assume that all natural numbers can be defined/distinguished, then the
    above subtraction could also happen but, caused by the well-order, a
    last number would disappear. Contradiction.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Chris M. Thomasson on Thu May 29 14:21:34 2025
    On 29.05.2025 01:22, Chris M. Thomasson wrote:
    On 5/27/2025 1:13 PM, WM wrote:
    On 27.05.2025 22:07, Chris M. Thomasson wrote:
    On 5/27/2025 12:34 PM, WM wrote:
    On 27.05.2025 18:05, FromTheRafters wrote:
    WM wrote :
    On 26.05.2025 22:25, efji wrote:
    Le 26/05/2025 à 16:36, WM a écrit :
    That is wrong. Present mathematics simply assumes that all
    natural numbers can be used for counting. But that is wrong.

    What's the point ?
    It is the DEFINITION of "counting". A countable infinite set IS a >>>>>>> set equipped with a bijection onto \N.

    This bijection does not exist because most natural numbers cannot
    be distinguished as a simple argument shows.

    Bijected elements need not be distinguished, it is enough to show a
    bijection.

    You mean it is enough to believe in a bijection?
    [...]

    Either the bijection works or it doesn't. For instance, Cantor
    Pairing works with any unsigned integer.

    It does not.

    All positive fractions

         1/1, 1/2, 1/3, 1/4, ...
         2/1, 2/2, 2/3, 2/4, ...
         3/1, 3/2, 3/3, 3/4, ...
         4/1, 4/2, 4/3, 4/4, ...
         ...

    can be indexed by the Cantor function k = (m + n - 1)(m + n - 2)/2 + m
    which attaches the index k to the fraction m/n in Cantor's sequence

    1/1, 1/2, 2/1, 1/3, 2/2, 3/1, 1/4, 2/3, 3/2, 4/1, 1/5, 2/4, 3/3, 4/2,
    5/1, 1/6, 2/5, 3/4, ... .

    Its terms can be represented by matrices. When we attach all indeXes k
    = 1, 2, 3, ..., for clarity represented by X, to the integer fractions
    m/1 and indicate missing indexes by hOles O, then we get the matrix
    M(0) as starting position:

    XOOO...    XXOO...    XXOO...    XXXO...
    XOOO...    OOOO...    XOOO...    XOOO...
    XOOO...    XOOO...    OOOO...    OOOO...
    XOOO...    XOOO...    XOOO...    OOOO...
    M(0)       M(2)       M(3)        M(4)      ...

    M(1) is the same as M(0) because index 1 remains at 1/1. In M(2) index
    2 from 2/1 has been attached to 1/2. In M(3) index 3 from 3/1 has been
    attached to 2/1. In M(4) index 4 from 4/1 has been attached to 1/3.
    Successively all fractions of the sequence get indexed. In the limit
    we see no fraction without index remaining. Note that the only
    difference to Cantor's enumeration is that Cantor does not render
    account for the source of the indices.

    Every X, representing the index k, when taken from its present
    fraction m/n, is replaced by the O taken from the fraction to be
    indexed by this k. Its last carrier m/n will be indexed later by
    another index. Important is that, when continuing, no O can leave the
    matrix as long as any index X blocks the only possible drain, i.e.,
    the first column. And if leaving, where should it settle?

    As long as indexes are in the drain, no O has left. The presence of
    all O indicates that almost all fractions are not indexed. And after
    all indexes have been issued and the drain has become free, no indexes
    are available which could index the remaining matrix elements, yet
    covered by O.

    It should go without saying that by rearranging the X of M(0) never a
    complete covering can be realized.

    It sounds like you are trying to say

    Don't guess. Try to understand the proof.

    , even the following map does not work:

    map_to(x) return x + 1
    map_from(x) return x - 1

    It works for all definable numbers because they are a potentially
    infinite sequence: For every x there is x + 1. The above proof concerns
    all natural numbers. For Cantor's actually infinite set the map does not
    work, but that is more difficult to understand (since you can't imagine
    dark numbers) than the above obvious result.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Ross Finlayson on Thu May 29 20:25:58 2025
    On 29.05.2025 17:37, Ross Finlayson wrote:
    On 05/28/2025 04:22 PM, Chris M. Thomasson wrote:
    On 5/27/2025 1:13 PM, WM wrote:

    All positive fractions

         1/1, 1/2, 1/3, 1/4, ...
         2/1, 2/2, 2/3, 2/4, ...
         3/1, 3/2, 3/3, 3/4, ...
         4/1, 4/2, 4/3, 4/4, ...
         ...

    can be indexed by the Cantor function k = (m + n - 1)(m + n - 2)/2 + m
    which attaches the index k to the fraction m/n in Cantor's sequence

    1/1, 1/2, 2/1, 1/3, 2/2, 3/1, 1/4, 2/3, 3/2, 4/1, 1/5, 2/4, 3/3, 4/2,
    5/1, 1/6, 2/5, 3/4, ... .

    Its terms can be represented by matrices. When we attach all indeXes k
    = 1, 2, 3, ..., for clarity represented by X, to the integer fractions
    m/1 and indicate missing indexes by hOles O, then we get the matrix
    M(0) as starting position:

    XOOO...    XXOO...    XXOO...    XXXO...
    XOOO...    OOOO...    XOOO...    XOOO...
    XOOO...    XOOO...    OOOO...    OOOO...
    XOOO...    XOOO...    XOOO...    OOOO...
    M(0)       M(2)       M(3)        M(4)      ...

    M(1) is the same as M(0) because index 1 remains at 1/1. In M(2) index
    2 from 2/1 has been attached to 1/2. In M(3) index 3 from 3/1 has been
    attached to 2/1. In M(4) index 4 from 4/1 has been attached to 1/3.
    Successively all fractions of the sequence get indexed. In the limit
    we see no fraction without index remaining. Note that the only
    difference to Cantor's enumeration is that Cantor does not render
    account for the source of the indices.

    Every X, representing the index k, when taken from its present
    fraction m/n, is replaced by the O taken from the fraction to be
    indexed by this k. Its last carrier m/n will be indexed later by
    another index. Important is that, when continuing, no O can leave the
    matrix as long as any index X blocks the only possible drain, i.e.,
    the first column. And if leaving, where should it settle?

    As long as indexes are in the drain, no O has left. The presence of
    all O indicates that almost all fractions are not indexed. And after
    all indexes have been issued and the drain has become free, no indexes
    are available which could index the remaining matrix elements, yet
    covered by O.

    It should go without saying that by rearranging the X of M(0) never a
    complete covering can be realized.

    It sounds like you are trying to say, even the following map does not
    work:

    map_to(x) return x + 1
    map_from(x) return x - 1

    map_to(0) = 1
    map_to(1) = 2
    ...

    map_from(1) = 0
    map_from(2) = 1
    ...

    ?
    Didn't you already have this conversation,

    Yes.

    and why are you having it here?

    I repeated this argument because many matheologians are lying to have
    rejected it.

    It seems you're describing a simple book-keeping of an integer continuum
    in areal terms.

    Also called a geometrization sometimes.

    Right. Do you understand the result?

    Regards, WM

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  • From Julio Di Egidio@21:1/5 to Ross Finlayson on Fri Jun 6 15:03:53 2025
    On 30/05/2025 02:11, Ross Finlayson wrote:
    On 05/29/2025 11:25 AM, WM wrote:
    On 29.05.2025 17:37, Ross Finlayson wrote:
    <snip>
    It seems you're describing a simple book-keeping of an integer continuum >>> in areal terms.

    Also called a geometrization sometimes.

    Right. Do you understand the result?

    You can build it in Katz' OUTPACING simply enough,
    that more is larger.

    That depends on a particular structure though, like geometry,
    or often enough the integer lattice.

    Then that something is recursively self-similar, like the
    "infinite balanced binary tree", any node of which is a copy
    of the root, or "square Cantor space" where all the sequences
    of 0's and 1's are in lexicographic order in the language of 2^w,
    that's mostly defined by square Cantor space being an arithmetization
    of a geometrization of a line-drawing the interval [0,1].

    The only way I'd suggest you're making sense at all is to
    agree with everything I say, and retroactively.

    Yep, except that "Cantor" arithmetizes [0,1] into [0,1).

    -Julio

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  • From Julio Di Egidio@21:1/5 to Ross Finlayson on Tue Jun 10 02:27:35 2025
    On 10/06/2025 02:13, Ross Finlayson wrote:
    On 06/06/2025 06:03 AM, Julio Di Egidio wrote:

    Yep, except that "Cantor" arithmetizes [0,1] into [0,1).

    Yet, arithmetization is a mere attempt of geometrization,

    That one, from failure to fraud. Eat it, too.

    *Plonk*

    -Julio

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  • From Moebius@21:1/5 to All on Sat Jun 14 23:35:51 2025
    Am 27.05.2025 um 21:49 schrieb Alan Mackenzie:
    FromTheRafters <FTR@nomail.afraid.org> wrote:

    Why are you working together with WM to hijack this thread from another crank?

    Because FromTheAfter is an idiot par excellence.

    .
    .
    .

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