Now it is funny that physics has 1/seconds as being meaningful and called frequency.
But that 1/meters seems to not have meaning in Old Physics. For I am one to believe if meters/seconds and 1/seconds both have physical meaning that 1/meters and seconds/meters should have meaning, only, we just have not figured them out as yet.
Sorry, no, I do not like to go to bed with unresolved questions on my mind, not if I can solve them quickly.denominator.
The question of how did Newton get the law of gravity with a meters^2 in denominator, yet the force law is mass*(meter/sec^2).
So in the gravity the meters^2 is in denominator, while seconds^2 for force law.
I studied under Halliday & Resnick 1968-1972 at Univ Cincinnati, and what happened is that H&R never derive gravity law from F= ma. What they do is have the gravitational constant bypass the conundrum of seconds^2 denominator versus meters^2
G as written in H&R, Fundamentals of Physics, 3rd ed. 1988, page 332, is G = 6.67*10^-11 m^3/(kg*sec^2).
In other words, the constant G, fixes all things, to where you do not derive gravity from F= ma.
No, I am not happy with this so far. I am not convinced that seconds/meters is independent of meters/sec and that both are speeds. I am going to need much more evidence, than just the gravitational constant and the fact that Coulomb force and gravityforce have a meters^2 in denominator.
I could just as well argue seconds/meters^2 is the inverse of angular momentum meters^2/sec. And that one is the same as the other.
Not looking good for this book.
Ever since Newton (1642-1726) gave out Force = mass* acceleration = (mass)(meters)/sec^2, and also Newton gave gravity = constant(Mass_1*Mass_2)/ meters^2.up with this.
I have found not one single physicist explain how Force has a denominator of sec^2, while the gravity force has denominator of meters^2.
Not a single physicist from Newton onwards was concerned that Force is seconds^2 in denominator while Coulomb law and gravity law is meters^2 in denominator.
In New Physics we start with the primal axiom All is Atom, and Atoms are nothing but electricity and magnetism.
So we ask what is electricity and magnetism which puts us directly onto New Ohm's Law V = CBE, voltage equals current times magnetic field times electric field. Now we take all the possible math permutations of V = CBE as differential equations and end
C' = (V/(BE))' = V'BE/(BE)^2 - VB'E/(BE)^2 - VBE'/(BE)^2 which is Faraday's law.
1st term as current production -- 2nd term as Lenz law -- 3rd term as DC, AC direction
B' = (V/(CE))' = V'CE/(CE)^2 - VC'E/(CE)^2 - VCE')/(CE)^2 which is Ampere-Maxwell law.
1st term as B production -- 2nd term as Displacement current -- 3rd term as parallel attract
E' = (V/(CB))' = V'CB/(CB)^2 - VC'B/(CB)^2 - VCB'/(CB)^2 which is Coulomb-gravity law.
1st term as E production -- 2nd term as inverse square of distance -- 3rd term as spin and orbit synchronicity
V' = (CBE)' = C'BE + CB'E + CBE' which is Transformer law
1st term as V production in a transformer -- 2nd term as inverse square root -- 3rd term as DC, AC synchronicity
Notice you have a denominator in some as (BE)^2, in some as (CE)^2 and in some (CB)^2. From those denominators, we get seconds^2 in the denominator, and some of those denominators, we get meters^2.
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