• AP's 256th book of science // Physics Units of seconds/meter compared t

    From Archimedes Plutonium@21:1/5 to All on Thu Aug 3 13:58:27 2023
    AP's 256th book of science // Physics Units of seconds/meter compared to meters/second

    Is the Physics unit of seconds/meter even exist? For it is the reverse or inverse of speed of meters/second. This book delves into the concept of seconds/meter. For it is likely to be just another form of meters/second, for instance 5meters/second when
    reversed is (1/5)seconds/meter.

    The 5meters/second is speed at which particle travels a distance of 5 meters in the time elapsed of 1 second.

    The (1/5) seconds is merely the same particle takes to travel 1 meter.

    So, are the two the same, or are they different concepts?

    AP

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  • From Archimedes Plutonium@21:1/5 to All on Thu Aug 3 14:44:09 2023
    Now I am looking at this very closely and carefully to see if perhaps the units seconds/meters is a "probability unit concept) rather than being just another form of "speed" turned upside down.

    If seconds/meters is a full fledged independent concept apart from meters/second, then this book goes forward as a new book. Otherwise, if seconds/meters, is just a flipped over speed, and the same speed as meters/second, then I just add this to an
    existing book of mine.

    But the real reason I am tackling this question now is because of my 255th book raises the question of the inverse square law which is the maximum law in Old Physics with Coulomb and with gravity. where we have meters^2 in the denominator.

    So, do we have seconds/meters in the Coulomb force? Do we have seconds/meters in the force of gravity.

    Obviously the Calculus enters and with respect to meters in seconds/meters changes that to be seconds/meters^2 and thus we have Coulomb and gravity force.

    And force is F = mass(accel)

    And acceleration is meters/seconds^2.

    Yet for Coulomb and gravity force we have the denominator be meters^2.

    So, well, repeating my claim. If seconds/meters is an independent units concept, separate of meters/second, then I go ahead and write this new book. If not, then I include these ideas in an old book of mine already written.

    I suspect it is independent and that seconds/meters is not just a form of speed written awkwardly.

    I suspect that we can enter into the Schrodinger wave equation and Psi-squared, as a probability unit concept.

    What I am saying is that Probability theory plays a huge role in Quantum Mechanics with its psi-squared.

    And that this seconds/meters is likely to be one and the same as Schrodinger's Psi^2.

    Under this conception, then, we see seconds/meters not as a screwed up speed written awkwardly. Instead, we see seconds/meters as a Probability of finding a particle or a Wave in a area of Meters^2 in Space.

    So as in my above example of 5meters/second is understood as a particle traveling in Space at a speed of 5 meters per second. Then a (1/5)seconds/ meters is a probability of finding a wave or particle per meter of space.

    This is what I am thinking at the moment. That Old Physics had the Schrodinger probability, but no Schrodinger actual Space reality, and that this units of seconds/meter offers us just that actual math physical reality.

    AP, King of Science

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  • From Archimedes Plutonium@21:1/5 to All on Thu Aug 3 18:57:10 2023
    Now it is funny that physics has 1/seconds as being meaningful and called frequency.

    But that 1/meters seems to not have meaning in Old Physics. For I am one to believe if meters/seconds and 1/seconds both have physical meaning that 1/meters and seconds/meters should have meaning, only, we just have not figured them out as yet.

    AP

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  • From Archimedes Plutonium@21:1/5 to All on Thu Aug 3 18:48:35 2023
    I am asking if seconds/meters is the same as meters/seconds, both being a form of speed.

    Now angular momentum is (mass) meters^2/ seconds while acceleration is meters/sec^2.

    How about waves? Then, can we say that meters/second is for particles, while seconds/meters is for waves. If true, then this certainly would give a whole new physics field of study, for then we question the Speed of Light a constant if speed for waves is
    seconds/meters rather than meters/seconds.

    This would constitute a new idea and a new book for seconds/meter.

    AP

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  • From Archimedes Plutonium@21:1/5 to All on Fri Aug 4 00:05:07 2023
    Sorry, no, I do not like to go to bed with unresolved questions on my mind, not if I can solve them quickly.

    The question of how did Newton get the law of gravity with a meters^2 in denominator, yet the force law is mass*(meter/sec^2).

    So in the gravity the meters^2 is in denominator, while seconds^2 for force law.

    I studied under Halliday & Resnick 1968-1972 at Univ Cincinnati, and what happened is that H&R never derive gravity law from F= ma. What they do is have the gravitational constant bypass the conundrum of seconds^2 denominator versus meters^2 denominator.

    G as written in H&R, Fundamentals of Physics, 3rd ed. 1988, page 332, is G = 6.67*10^-11 m^3/(kg*sec^2).

    In other words, the constant G, fixes all things, to where you do not derive gravity from F= ma.

    I suppose, if I knew what I know now, and back in 1968, asked the professor in class, derive the gravity law from F=ma, that he would be in a precarious predicament. And most likely one of the reasons I was never a star student in science classes-- my
    questions were often vexations for the teacher. Provided if the teacher understood my question. For most often, I would get an answer unrelated to my genuine question. Like the time in biology class, wanting to know why meiosis went all the way up to 92,
    for they thought the human chromosomes of 46 went to 92 in order to get to 23. The poor biology teacher, he did not understand my question, as so often is the case. Science teachers hate questions that put them on the spot.

    AP

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  • From Archimedes Plutonium@21:1/5 to Archimedes Plutonium on Thu Aug 3 23:34:13 2023
    On Thursday, August 3, 2023 at 8:57:14 PM UTC-5, Archimedes Plutonium wrote:
    Now it is funny that physics has 1/seconds as being meaningful and called frequency.

    But that 1/meters seems to not have meaning in Old Physics. For I am one to believe if meters/seconds and 1/seconds both have physical meaning that 1/meters and seconds/meters should have meaning, only, we just have not figured them out as yet.


    So, well, let us consider the meaning of 1/meter as "wavelength" since we have 1/seconds is frequency.

    And since we have meters/seconds is speed (or velocity) which is the speed of a particle, let us say that seconds/meters has something to do with Waves, waves of light.

    So when we measure the speed of light from distance A to B, what we measure is for the forward leading pencil ellipse circuit of light to reach B. The speed of a part of a ellipse starting at A and reaching B. And we measure that at 3.16*10^8 m/s.

    But what about seconds/meter? And here we can have the source A moving towards B which will give a different speed for light in seconds/meter than in meter/seconds. So in this concept of seconds/meter, we have opened a Pandora's box of brand new
    questions.

    Now one of the crucial reasons I may end up writing this book if I can validate the existence of seconds/meter as independent of speed meters/seconds. One of the reasons is the Integral of seconds/meter is seconds/meter^2 which ends up as Coulombs law
    and gravity law.

    Whereas integral of meters/seconds is meters/seconds^2 or an acceleration for a force.

    At the moment, I do not recall how physicists explained that gravity and Coulomb law was a force, even though they had meters^2 in the denominator. And have to relook that up.

    But if we had seconds/meters, it is automatic that the integral gives us the inverse square of distance in the denominator, and no need to look up how Old Physics freshman physics delivered the denominator. At the moment I recall I just did not learn
    that manuever when sitting in physics class some 50 years ago. In gravity law, mass is plain to see, but how to get 1/meters^2 when acceleration is 1/seconds^2.

    And AP's 254th book of science is when Old Physics and Old Math died as intellectual pursuits. I can easily tell you why Old Math died-- they never had a valid proof of Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, FTC, and never could so long as they had Reals with
    its continuum as the numbers of mathematics. You simply cannot prove FTC with Reals and with "limit analysis". And so, all the mathematics from Newton onwards was "dead mathematics" until someone could deliver a valid proof of FTC. I bring this to your
    attention because it shows a method of when a subject like Math is dead, and that method is using the FTC, to clean out all of Old Math.

    Is there a similar cleaning out method of Old Physics? Old Physics was dead by the Rutherford-Bohr model of atoms where proton, neutron, electron were balls, with no function and no purpose. This you could say was year 1900 only it took for the
    Rutherford-Geiger-Marsden gold leaf experiment to enhance the ball-do-nothing subatomic particles.

    So to clean house on math-- we just recognize that you needed to be able to make a valid proof of Fundamental Theorem of Calculus-- and throw out Reals, throw out negative numbers, use only 1st Quadrant, use the axiom of what is a valid function, use the
    axiom of what is a valid equation, use the proper definition of a function-- polynomials only.

    In essence, true modern mathematics is an exercise in giving a valid proof of the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, for none had been given from Newton until AP. By 2013, AP gave the first valid proof of FTC.

    What needed to be done for the dead and dying Old Physics? What method needed to be applied to clean up Physics??

    Well, for starters, we have to go back to that early 1900s Rutherford, Geiger, Marsden experiment on gold leaf foil where a alpha particle bounces back 180 degrees to the source. Apparently Rutherford, Geiger, Marsden and Bohr were failed physicists in
    early 1900s, failed as to not recognize a nucleus of atoms does not bounce back a alpha particle at 180 degrees with more speed than the alpha particle entered the gold atoms. So that contrary to atoms having a nucleus, the bounce back at 180degrees
    means the alpha particle collided with something moving faster and heavier than the alpha particle itself.

    So if Rutherford et al. had interpreted the experiment to its real truth, would have come up with the idea (perhaps come up with the idea) that the atom internals were a coil with a bar magnet moving inside and the bar magnet for gold was 79 muons moving
    almost the speed of light inside a proton torus. When you have 79 muons each with 105MeV slam head-on collision with a incoming alpha particle, it is like a truck of muons slamming head on into a tiny car of a alpha particle.

    But, I cannot expect Rutherford and Bohr and others to have realized their mistake of not accounting for that "extra velocity coming out, than going in". But what I do criticize immensely, and call the physics community utter dolts and fools, is that
    they kept the Ball Picture of subatomic particles for over a century. From year 1900 to 2016-2017 when AP said the Muon is the true electron of Atoms stuck inside a 840MeV proton torus doing the Faraday law, is a time period of 117 years, and there can
    be no excuse why foolish idiots would believe in a Standard Model that has the proton, neutron, electron as balls without jobs, without function.

    For Mathematics, the method was no valid proof of calculus.

    For Physics, the method was, the idiotic and mindless belief of subatomic particles as balls with no job, no function, no purpose, yet they had the Maxwell Equations since 1860s, and those foolish idiots could not equate that the subatomic particles ---
    had to be the Faraday law, had to be the Coulomb law--- had to be the Capacitor law and had to be Ohm's law.

    A foolish idiot of math is one who is blind to the fact that a limit analysis is not a proof, but merely analyzing. I analyze perhaps 10 things in a day's time, not saying I proved a single one of those ten things. But that is how vapid in logic math
    professors had become-- so vapid they could not sense that analysis is not proof. And you needed a geometry proof of FTC, for calculus is geometry.

    The foolish idiots of physics from 1890s to 2017, myself included, where too mindless to ever realize-- physics is not right if your subatomic particles are do nothing balls, with no purpose no function.

    AP, King of Science

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  • From Archimedes Plutonium@21:1/5 to Archimedes Plutonium on Fri Aug 4 00:33:48 2023
    On Friday, August 4, 2023 at 2:05:11 AM UTC-5, Archimedes Plutonium wrote:
    Sorry, no, I do not like to go to bed with unresolved questions on my mind, not if I can solve them quickly.

    The question of how did Newton get the law of gravity with a meters^2 in denominator, yet the force law is mass*(meter/sec^2).

    So in the gravity the meters^2 is in denominator, while seconds^2 for force law.

    I studied under Halliday & Resnick 1968-1972 at Univ Cincinnati, and what happened is that H&R never derive gravity law from F= ma. What they do is have the gravitational constant bypass the conundrum of seconds^2 denominator versus meters^2
    denominator.

    G as written in H&R, Fundamentals of Physics, 3rd ed. 1988, page 332, is G = 6.67*10^-11 m^3/(kg*sec^2).

    In other words, the constant G, fixes all things, to where you do not derive gravity from F= ma.

    Yes, most definitely I am ready to write this as a independent book. For the G constant in gravity itself has units of m^3/s^2 to nullify the gravity force of mass/m^2. This tells me that meters/sec and meters/sec^2 are for particles in motion. While
    seconds/meter or seconds/meter^2 or seconds^2/meters^2 are for Waves of physics.

    And now I am reminded of a book a wrote years back, whose main theme was that the force of gravity is the Faraday law. Explaining it as that the Sun causes magnetic field Tracks around the Sun. Each of these tracks has a planet in it. Then the Sun shoots
    EM waves of energy, forward and aft of the planet and as these EM waves hit the planet aft-- pushes the planet in orbit, and those hitting the planet fore, pull the planet in the magnetic field track. That picture of gravity and how gravity works needs
    the physical units of seconds/meter, seconds/meter^2, and seconds^2/meters^2.

    So what the Old Physics had was meters/sec, and meters/sec^2, and meters^2/sec^2, and that was for particles. But for waves we need the seconds/meter, and the seconds/meter^2, and the seconds^2/meter^2.

    AP

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  • From Archimedes Plutonium@21:1/5 to All on Fri Aug 4 13:39:03 2023
    Comparing meters/second to seconds/meters with the EM Spectrum

    Saying that meters/second is for particles while seconds/meters is for Light Waves.


    So that at one extreme end Radio Waves we have 3Hz to wavelength 10^8 meters

    At the other extreme end we have X-rays 10^-8 meters 124 eV. X-rays as particles.

    Visible is 10^-6 meters with 1.24 eV energy, as waves.

    When I did this before, I had a boundary at the Radio region with Psi squared, saying where the frequency and wavelength equaled each other in numeric value of 10^4.

    Now I have a boundary in X-rays with seconds/meters in wavelength 10^-10 (frequency 10^18) yielding speed of light 10^8.

    What I am doing here is bringing the units of seconds/meters into the fold with meters/seconds, saying that seconds/meters is the opposite end of the EM spectrum from meters/seconds, one dealing in particles like X-rays, gamma rays while the other
    dealing in Waves such as Visible and infrared, microwaves, radio.

    This is also bringing Transverse waves related to Longitudinal waves into the fold of the EM Spectrum.

    AP

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  • From Archimedes Plutonium@21:1/5 to All on Fri Aug 4 23:23:22 2023
    I am in need of a vast revision of EM Spectrum, for I posited that the EM Spectrum is Longitudinal Waves in radio waves, and Transverse in Infrared-Visible- UV and back to Longitudinal. While writing books 252-256 of mine a new geometry emerges that is
    no longer Longitudinal waves for which the description of Pair Production is better seen.

    A Longitudinal Wave for X-rays and beyond is not consistent with Pair Production, and a new geometry figure for waves is called for.



    --- quoting Wikipedia on Pair Production ---
    Pair production is the creation of a subatomic particle and its antiparticle from a neutral boson. Examples include creating an electron and a positron, a muon and an antimuon, or a proton and an antiproton. Pair production often refers specifically to a
    photon creating an electron–positron pair near a nucleus. As energy must be conserved, for pair production to occur, the incoming energy of the photon must be above a threshold of at least the total rest mass energy of the two particles created. (As
    the electron is the lightest, hence, lowest mass/energy, elementary particle, it requires the least energetic photons of all possible pair-production processes.) Conservation of energy and momentum are the principal constraints on the process. All other
    conserved quantum numbers (angular momentum, electric charge, lepton number) of the produced particles must sum to zero – thus the created particles shall have opposite values of each other. For instance, if o
  • From Archimedes Plutonium@21:1/5 to All on Mon Aug 7 23:15:29 2023
    No, I am not happy with this so far. I am not convinced that seconds/meters is independent of meters/sec and that both are speeds. I am going to need much more evidence, than just the gravitational constant and the fact that Coulomb force and gravity
    force have a meters^2 in denominator.

    I could just as well argue seconds/meters^2 is the inverse of angular momentum meters^2/sec. And that one is the same as the other.

    Not looking good for this book.

    AP

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  • From Archimedes Plutonium@21:1/5 to Archimedes Plutonium on Tue Aug 8 09:44:07 2023
    On Tuesday, August 8, 2023 at 1:15:32 AM UTC-5, Archimedes Plutonium wrote:
    No, I am not happy with this so far. I am not convinced that seconds/meters is independent of meters/sec and that both are speeds. I am going to need much more evidence, than just the gravitational constant and the fact that Coulomb force and gravity
    force have a meters^2 in denominator.

    I could just as well argue seconds/meters^2 is the inverse of angular momentum meters^2/sec. And that one is the same as the other.

    Not looking good for this book.


    Alright, I was not thinking clearly enough on seconds/meters as whether they are units.

    And now I pinpointed the source of frustration and fog.

    This will be a book, only it corrects mathematics, not physics units.

    The source of the difficulty here, as to whether seconds/meters is a physics unit comes from mathematics as to the difference between function and equation.

    The function x --> Y is not the same entity as Y = x. The equation Y/x = 1 is the same as Y = x. Here, Old Math mixes up what is a function versus what is an equation.

    The function x --> Y is the diagonal straight line function
    |
    |/__

    But if we said Y--> x, we start on the Y axis and go up and we register the very same graph.

    |
    |/__

    The equation Y/x = 1 or x/Y = 1 are different entites from the function x --> Y, and Y --> x.

    In physics meters/seconds is the same as seconds/meters, both are speeds or velocity. Same goes for angular momentum (mass) meters^2/ seconds is (mass) seconds/meters^2. And this is why the Coulomb law and force of gravity with its meters^2 in
    denominator are so baffling. For in physics we easily interchange meters^2/seconds with seconds/meters^2.

    In this book, I need to straighten-out Old Math's inverse functions theory. They held that exponential function was inverse to logarithmic function, and in this book we examine and clarify that idea.

    AP, King of Science

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  • From Archimedes Plutonium@21:1/5 to All on Tue Aug 8 10:50:16 2023
    Ever since Newton (1642-1726) gave out Force = mass* acceleration = (mass)(meters)/sec^2, and also Newton gave gravity = constant(Mass_1*Mass_2)/ meters^2.

    I have found not one single physicist explain how Force has a denominator of sec^2, while the gravity force has denominator of meters^2.

    Not a single physicist from Newton onwards was concerned that Force is seconds^2 in denominator while Coulomb law and gravity law is meters^2 in denominator.

    In New Physics we start with the primal axiom All is Atom, and Atoms are nothing but electricity and magnetism.

    So we ask what is electricity and magnetism which puts us directly onto New Ohm's Law V = CBE, voltage equals current times magnetic field times electric field. Now we take all the possible math permutations of V = CBE as differential equations and end
    up with this.


    C' = (V/(BE))' = V'BE/(BE)^2 - VB'E/(BE)^2 - VBE'/(BE)^2 which is Faraday's law.
    1st term as current production  -- 2nd term as Lenz law  -- 3rd term as DC, AC direction

    B' = (V/(CE))' = V'CE/(CE)^2 - VC'E/(CE)^2 - VCE')/(CE)^2 which is Ampere-Maxwell law.
    1st term as B production -- 2nd term as Displacement current -- 3rd term as parallel attract

    E' = (V/(CB))' = V'CB/(CB)^2 - VC'B/(CB)^2 - VCB'/(CB)^2 which is Coulomb-gravity law.
    1st term as E production -- 2nd term as inverse square of distance -- 3rd term as spin and orbit synchronicity

    V' = (CBE)' = C'BE + CB'E + CBE' which is Transformer law
    1st term as V production in a transformer  -- 2nd term as inverse square root -- 3rd term as DC, AC synchronicity

    Notice you have a denominator in some as (BE)^2, in some as (CE)^2 and in some (CB)^2. From those denominators, we get seconds^2 in the denominator, and some of those denominators, we get meters^2.

    AP, King of Science, especially Physics & Logic

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  • From Archimedes Plutonium@21:1/5 to Archimedes Plutonium on Tue Aug 8 22:25:50 2023
    On Tuesday, August 8, 2023 at 12:50:19 PM UTC-5, Archimedes Plutonium wrote:
    Ever since Newton (1642-1726) gave out Force = mass* acceleration = (mass)(meters)/sec^2, and also Newton gave gravity = constant(Mass_1*Mass_2)/ meters^2.

    I have found not one single physicist explain how Force has a denominator of sec^2, while the gravity force has denominator of meters^2.

    Not a single physicist from Newton onwards was concerned that Force is seconds^2 in denominator while Coulomb law and gravity law is meters^2 in denominator.

    In New Physics we start with the primal axiom All is Atom, and Atoms are nothing but electricity and magnetism.

    So we ask what is electricity and magnetism which puts us directly onto New Ohm's Law V = CBE, voltage equals current times magnetic field times electric field. Now we take all the possible math permutations of V = CBE as differential equations and end
    up with this.


    C' = (V/(BE))' = V'BE/(BE)^2 - VB'E/(BE)^2 - VBE'/(BE)^2 which is Faraday's law.
    1st term as current production -- 2nd term as Lenz law -- 3rd term as DC, AC direction

    B' = (V/(CE))' = V'CE/(CE)^2 - VC'E/(CE)^2 - VCE')/(CE)^2 which is Ampere-Maxwell law.
    1st term as B production -- 2nd term as Displacement current -- 3rd term as parallel attract

    E' = (V/(CB))' = V'CB/(CB)^2 - VC'B/(CB)^2 - VCB'/(CB)^2 which is Coulomb-gravity law.
    1st term as E production -- 2nd term as inverse square of distance -- 3rd term as spin and orbit synchronicity

    V' = (CBE)' = C'BE + CB'E + CBE' which is Transformer law
    1st term as V production in a transformer -- 2nd term as inverse square root -- 3rd term as DC, AC synchronicity

    Notice you have a denominator in some as (BE)^2, in some as (CE)^2 and in some (CB)^2. From those denominators, we get seconds^2 in the denominator, and some of those denominators, we get meters^2.


    Both E' and B' have a Coulomb current in the denominator. That would flip around the meters/seconds to be a meters^2 in denominator.

    The Ampere law B' is also known as the Biot-Savart law written as B' = (u_0/4pi)(i*dsXr/ r^3) where the r cancels leaving a r^2 in denominator, a meters^2.

    This is a nice check on the AP-EM Equations as the replacement of the Maxwell Equations which were full of errors, especially the no magnetic monopoles, which screwed up all the Maxwell Equations. It is sad in a way, that Maxwell did not have the logical
    insight that Dirac would later pursue-- you need the magnetic monopole as to make the EM Equations symmetrical. Physics abhors anti-symmetry.

    AP

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  • From Archimedes Plutonium@21:1/5 to All on Wed Aug 9 14:29:15 2023
    Sorry, I am combining this book with my 252nd book as they are closely related, and changing the title to be that of Units of Math and Physics Consolidated.

    Prior to this action my title was this::
    The importance of 3 and 1/3 in Physics-- no 4th dimension; Electromagnetic Spectrum; calculus meaningless after 3 variables // Physics research

    I find my subject matter more about bringing together physics units with math units, rather than a book on the number 3.

    AP

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