• Re: General Relativity Does Not Rescue Special Relativity.

    From LaurenceClarkCrossen@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 6 21:58:02 2024
    Absolute motion can cause some rates of change to alter, but can't cause
    all rates to be modified in unison. GR is false.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From LaurenceClarkCrossen@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 6 21:50:21 2024
    General Relativity Does Not Rescue Special Relativity.


    It ditches it.

    According to special relativity time dilation is caused by relative
    motion per se.

    This has been rightly criticized as self-contradictory.

    General relativity says the clock that is accelerating is time dilating.
    This makes the cause absolute motion and not relative motion.

    Therefore, GR ditches SR, which is a distinctly different and false
    theory.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From LaurenceClarkCrossen@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 6 22:39:18 2024
    Reasonable defense by a relativist: Dingle refuted the alleged cause of relative motion for time dilation of special relativity. Time dilation
    is a part of GR, not SR.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From LaurenceClarkCrossen@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 6 23:20:12 2024
    Ross: Well, thanks, but then Einstein is spouting gibberish because you
    must be taken to be saying Einstein claimed time dilation is caused by "spatial." In any case, all of it is stupid and ignorant pseudoscience
    that you retail in your gibberish or Einstein's gibberish. Ross, come
    out of it!!! Come to your senses.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From LaurenceClarkCrossen@21:1/5 to All on Thu Nov 7 03:49:47 2024
    Ross: All of that is pure nonsense. You are just so full of it because
    you are full of relativity. It is totally pseudo-scientific nonsense. Space-time involves reification fallacy making it nonsense. I don't have
    time to waste on your hair brained nonsense.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Maciej Wozniak@21:1/5 to All on Tue Nov 12 18:23:29 2024
    W dniu 12.11.2024 o 13:54, JanPB pisze:
    On Wed, 6 Nov 2024 21:50:21 +0000, LaurenceClarkCrossen wrote:

    General Relativity Does Not Rescue Special Relativity.


    It ditches it.

    According to special relativity time dilation is caused by relative
    motion per se.

    Not "caused" but "is correlated to". We do not know the cause.

    This has been rightly criticized as self-contradictory.

    It's not self-contradictory

    Of course it is, and provided with a proof
    you can only pretend you haven't noticed.
    Exactly as expected from a fanatic idiot.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul B. Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Tue Nov 12 21:59:31 2024
    Den 06.11.2024 22:50, skrev LaurenceClarkCrossen:

    General relativity says the clock that is accelerating is time dilating.
    This makes the cause absolute motion and not relative motion.

    Consider the following scenario:
    Two clocks, A and B, are both moving in circular motion
    in flat spacetime. Both clocks are moving with same
    constant speed v in the inertial frame where the two
    circles are stationary.

    Clock A is moving around a circle with radius r.
    Clock B is moving around a circle with radius 2r.

    The time for clock A to move around the circle is:
    tA = 2⋅π⋅r/v
    The time for clock B to move around the circle is:
    tB = 4⋅π⋅r/v = 2⋅tA

    This means that clock A makes two complete turns while
    clock B makes one.

    The circles are such that clock A and B are adjacent
    when tA = 0 and tB = 0.
    This means that the event "clocks are adjacent" will
    occur periodically with period Δt = 4⋅π⋅r/v = 2⋅tA = tB

    So the question is:
    What does GR predict the proper times of the clocks will be?

    According to GR, we can use the Schwarzschild metric to find
    the proper time of a clock in circular motion.

    See equation (1) in:
    https://paulba.no/pdf/H&K_like.pdf

    In our case we have:
    M = 0 (no mass in the centre)
    dr = 0 (constant radius)
    θ = π/2 (colatitude in the orbital plane)
    dθ = 0 (θ constant)

    So equation (1) simplifies to:
    c²⋅dτ² = c²⋅dt² - r²⋅dϕ² => dτ²/dt² = 1 - (r²⋅dϕ²/dt²)/c²

    Note that r⋅dϕ/dt = v, the speed of the clock.

    dτ/dt = √(1−v²/c²)

    This means that the proper time of clock A between the events will be:
    ΔτA = 2⋅tA⋅√(1−v²/c²) = (4⋅π⋅r/v)⋅√(1−v²/c²) = Δt⋅√(1−v²/c²)
    and the proper time of clock B between the events will be:
    ΔτB = tB⋅√(1−v²/c²) = (4⋅π⋅r/v)⋅√(1−v²/c²) = Δt⋅√(1−v²/c²)

    So clock A and B will measure the same proper time between
    the events "clocks adjacent". (same "time dilation")

    BUT:
    The centripetal acceleration of clock A is dvA/dt = v²/r
    while the centripetal acceleration of clock B is dvB/dt = v²/2r

    That is:
    The acceleration of clock A is twice the acceleration of clock B,
    yet the "time dilation" is the same for both clocks.

    So your claim is wrong:
    " General relativity says the clock that is accelerating is
    time dilating."

    The acceleration is not the cause of time dilation according to GR.


    Therefore, GR ditches SR, which is a distinctly different and false
    theory.

    You know of cause that according to SR:
    dτ/dt = √(1−v²/c²)

    Exactly the same as GR.

    As demonstrated above, GR simplifies to SR in flat spacetime.

    Did you really not know this elementary fact?

    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From LaurenceClarkCrossen@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 13 04:55:32 2024
    Paul: Do you not know the elementary fact that time does not dilate
    because time cannot be equated to the rate of functioning of the clock?
    No kind of motion can or does cause time dilation because, for time to
    dilate, all rates of change would have to be affected to the same
    degree, so their relative rates remain the same. If some rates of change
    are not affected and do not stay at the same relative rate, time itself
    will not be dilating. It would only be a change in some rates relative
    to others. Also, motion cannot provide any mechanism to change all rates
    in concert. How will the rate of aging, absorption, evaporation, and
    heating change together? What will accelerate one rate of change will
    slow another. Why does anyone want to think time dilates? Only to save
    the ether! But you have no ether! Time dilation is irrelevant without an
    ether.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From LaurenceClarkCrossen@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 13 05:04:24 2024
    Paul: Riemann was a brilliant geometer, but he made the elementary error
    of reification fallacy when he made space curve and parallel lines meet. Schwarzschild and Einstein followed him in this error that you take as
    gospel. You all fail in elementary logic. Relativity is ridiculous.
    Please read this article and see the comments in "No True Relativist." "Poincaré and Cosmic Space: Curved or not?" According to this history, non-Euclidean geometry is more empirical than Euclidean. The truth is
    that while parallel lines have never been proven not to meet, they have
    never been proven to meet. The curvature of the universe is
    infinitesimal, making it non-falsifiable and unempirical.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Maciej Wozniak@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 13 06:42:48 2024
    W dniu 13.11.2024 o 06:18, Sylvia Else pisze:
    On 07-Nov-24 5:50 am, LaurenceClarkCrossen wrote:
    General Relativity Does Not Rescue Special Relativity.


    It ditches it.

    According to special relativity time dilation is caused by relative
    motion per se.

    This has been rightly criticized as self-contradictory.

    Only by people who misconstrue (willfully, or otherwise) what it says.

    Sorry, lady, it has been proven and Your assertions
    change nothing.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Sylvia Else@21:1/5 to LaurenceClarkCrossen on Wed Nov 13 13:18:33 2024
    On 07-Nov-24 5:50 am, LaurenceClarkCrossen wrote:
    General Relativity Does Not Rescue Special Relativity.


    It ditches it.

    According to special relativity time dilation is caused by relative
    motion per se.

    This has been rightly criticized as self-contradictory.

    Only by people who misconstrue (willfully, or otherwise) what it says.

    Sylvia

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Hachel@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 13 15:00:31 2024
    Le 13/11/2024 à 06:18, Sylvia Else a écrit :
    On 07-Nov-24 5:50 am, LaurenceClarkCrossen wrote:
    General Relativity Does Not Rescue Special Relativity.


    It ditches it.

    According to special relativity time dilation is caused by relative
    motion per se.

    This has been rightly criticized as self-contradictory.

    Only by people who misconstrue (willfully, or otherwise) what it says.

    Sylvia

    Sylvia and Laurence are both right and wrong.
    It is difficult to separate people when they are both right, or when they
    are both wrong.
    I waste a lot of time, but that is how it is, and there is not much you
    can do with human beings who will always consider it impossible for
    someone to enlighten them on something.

    Laurence is right when he says that if the two protagonists have
    reciprocally, and continuously, during their entire journey, CLOCKS that
    turn faster than the other clock, it is absurd.

    It IS absurd, and those who stood up against Einstein were right (a
    hundred authors against Einstein).

    And as long as we don't understand, neither Sylvia nor Laurence, the
    genius of Doctor Hachel, because Hachel is evil, because he is a bandit,
    and because the Holy Good Lord has decreed that he is the craziest of men,
    we will continue to swim in a small lake of shit.

    And no one will understand anything, and everyone will be happy to pretend
    to understand.

    I repeat for the thousandth time (the thousand and first time is on rotary press). It is NOT the time marked on the watches that is reciprocally continually greater on the watch that observes (otherwise it is absurd),
    it is chronotropy.

    It is CHRONOTROPY.

    That is to say the INTERNAL mechanism of watches.

    This is what is reciprocally, and continually in question during the whole journey, as much on Stella's side as on Terrence's side.

    And there is no contradiction ON THIS.

    Because chronotropy is the passage of time on watches, and not the total
    time measured on watches.

    The total time must take into account a second factor: anisochrony, that
    is to say the relativity of simultaneity.

    We therefore obtain in the numerator of the equation a correction to take
    into account.

    And we then have t'=t(1+cosµ.v/c)/sqrt(1-v²/c²)

    The absurdity of speaking only in terms of chronotropy is then lifted.

    For Stella, during her 18 years of travel sees Terrence age 30 years.

    For Terrence, during his thirty years, he sees Stella age 18 years.

    Everything is in order, and the theory of relativity remains perfect.

    R.H.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From J. J. Lodder@21:1/5 to JanPB on Wed Nov 13 17:59:31 2024
    JanPB <film.art@gmail.com> wrote:

    On Wed, 6 Nov 2024 22:39:18 +0000, LaurenceClarkCrossen wrote:

    Reasonable defense by a relativist: Dingle refuted the alleged cause of relative motion for time dilation of special relativity. Time dilation
    is a part of GR, not SR.

    Dingle's mistake was assuming a direct cause. But it may be that
    the two are merely *correlated* by a *common indirect cause*.

    In physics situations like this arose many times. For example,
    Maxwell's theory required equipping EM fields with their own
    momentum and angular momentum (otherwise the conservation laws
    would fail). Nobody knew what the seat of that momentum was.
    This was only modelled much later in quantum electrodynamics.

    It's very likely that time dilation, etc., are similarly conditioned phenomena. We still don't have the right model for the underlying
    causes.

    This is highly unlikely.
    Time dilation seems to be an inherent property
    of the space-time we find ourselves in.
    It has nothing to do with any kind of physics.
    (let alone models of something)
    Au contraire,
    physical theories must be Lorentz invariant by construction,
    to have any chance at all of being viable.

    Same thing happened with thermodynamics when people started to
    (correctly) quantify the amount of heat despite not knowing what
    heat was, or even at one point while having the wrong model of
    heat (the "caloric" or "phlogiston" model).

    Likewise. The notions of entropy and absolute temperature
    have nothing to do with any physical system in particular.
    That's why thermodynamics can be axiomatised.

    So this is a normal (although a bit temporarily uncomfortable)
    position for a physics theory to be in, it's nothing new.

    Nothing uncomfortable about it.

    It only seems such a tragedy to amateurs who ONLY know relativity but do
    not actually understand PHYSICS and how science works in particular. One standard amateur mistake here is the constant confusion of physics with philosophy.

    Unfortunately not just amateurs....

    Jan

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul B. Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 13 19:19:57 2024
    Den 13.11.2024 05:55, skrev LaurenceClarkCrossen:
    Paul: Do you not know the elementary fact that time does not dilate
    because time cannot be equated to the rate of functioning of the clock?

    In physics, "time" must be measurable.
    The instrument we use to measure "time" is per definition a "clock".
    So "proper time" is what we measure with clocks.
    There is no alternative.

    Do you claim to be able to measure time without using a clock?
    In that case, explain how.

    No kind of motion can or does cause time dilation because, for time to dilate, all rates of change would have to be affected to the same
    degree, so their relative rates remain the same.

    Nothing affects the rate of a proper clock. It always run at
    it's proper rate, advancing one second per second.

    "Time dilation" doesn't mean that a clock has changed its rate.

    See:
    https://paulba.no/pdf/Mutual_time_dilation.pdf

    You won't read it, of course.

    But you are right about one thing:
    Your idea of "time dilation", namely that some clocks are
    changing their rate, is indeed impossible.



    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From LaurenceClarkCrossen@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 13 19:37:39 2024
    Jan: You are absolutely correct. Time dilation has nothing to do with
    physics. The LT is absurd and unnecessary without an ether. The two
    beams in the MMX return simultaneously because there is no ether and not because of an LT.

    According to physics, entropy does not apply to open systems. The
    universe is infinite, so it is an open system.

    To accept relativity as physics is to confuse philosophy with physics.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From LaurenceClarkCrossen@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 13 19:19:49 2024
    Paul: Equating time with the reading of a clock wouldn't be acceptable
    to most employers; it's so stupid. Therefore, when clocks run
    differently under different circumstances, we properly understand this
    is an instrumental error, as when a pendulum clock must be adjusted to
    various lengths for different latitudes. That does not require
    relativity. Some clocks run slower at less gravity (sand and pendulum
    clocks) while some run faster (battery-powered and atomic), so this is
    not time itself changing.

    If a clock doesn't change its rate when time dilates, everything doesn't
    change in unison. Therefore, it is not time dilation. It is only a
    change in some rates of change.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From LaurenceClarkCrossen@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 13 19:27:17 2024
    Paul: What is supposed to cause time to dilate according to relativity
    is irrelevant because nothing can cause all rates of change to vary in
    unison. That is the only thing that can be called time dilation. You
    have not and can not show that this ever takes place. No one has.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Maciej Wozniak@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 13 23:42:18 2024
    W dniu 13.11.2024 o 19:19, Paul B. Andersen pisze:
    Den 13.11.2024 05:55, skrev LaurenceClarkCrossen:
    Paul: Do you not know the elementary fact that time does not dilate
    because time cannot be equated to the rate of functioning of the clock?

    In physics, "time" must be measurable.
    The instrument we use to measure "time" is per definition a "clock".
    So "proper time" is what we measure with clocks.

    Nope. Anyone can check GPS, what is measured
    with clock is - t'=t. Your "proper time" is
    just some absurd delusion of yours.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Maciej Wozniak@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 13 23:40:45 2024
    W dniu 13.11.2024 o 17:59, J. J. Lodder pisze:
    JanPB <film.art@gmail.com> wrote:

    On Wed, 6 Nov 2024 22:39:18 +0000, LaurenceClarkCrossen wrote:

    Reasonable defense by a relativist: Dingle refuted the alleged cause of
    relative motion for time dilation of special relativity. Time dilation
    is a part of GR, not SR.

    Dingle's mistake was assuming a direct cause. But it may be that
    the two are merely *correlated* by a *common indirect cause*.

    In physics situations like this arose many times. For example,
    Maxwell's theory required equipping EM fields with their own
    momentum and angular momentum (otherwise the conservation laws
    would fail). Nobody knew what the seat of that momentum was.
    This was only modelled much later in quantum electrodynamics.

    It's very likely that time dilation, etc., are similarly conditioned
    phenomena. We still don't have the right model for the underlying
    causes.

    This is highly unlikely.
    Time dilation seems to be an inherent property
    of the space-time we find ourselves in.

    It surely is an inherent property
    of the space-time you find yourselves
    in. It has just nothing in common with
    the reality, anyone can check GPS, time
    (as defined by your idiot guru himself)
    is galilean.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From J. J. Lodder@21:1/5 to LaurenceClarkCrossen on Thu Nov 14 11:51:43 2024
    LaurenceClarkCrossen <clzb93ynxj@att.net> wrote:

    Jan: You are absolutely correct.

    Unfortunately you are not.

    Time dilation has nothing to do with physics. The LT is absurd and unnecessary without an ether. The two beams in the MMX return
    simultaneously because there is no ether and not because of an LT.

    According to physics, entropy does not apply to open systems. The
    universe is infinite, so it is an open system.

    More nonsense. Do read up on statistical mechanics.
    BTW, energy and momentum conservation don't apply either,
    if you leave out some of the constituents.

    To accept relativity as physics is to confuse philosophy with physics.

    Again, depending on what you want the words to mean,

    Jan

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul B. Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Thu Nov 14 12:07:05 2024
    Den 13.11.2024 20:19, skrev LaurenceClarkCrossen:

    Den 13.11.2024 05:55, skrev LaurenceClarkCrossen:
    Paul: Do you not know the elementary fact that time does not
    dilate because time cannot be equated to the rate of functioning
    of the clock?

    In physics, "time" must be measurable.
    The instrument we use to measure "time" is per definition a "clock".
    So "proper time" is what we measure with clocks.
    There is no alternative.

    Do you claim to be able to measure time without using a clock?
    In that case, explain how.

    No kind of motion can or does cause time dilation because, for time
    to dilate, all rates of change would have to be affected to the same
    degree, so their relative rates remain the same.

    Nothing affects the rate of a proper clock. It always run at
    it's proper rate, advancing one second per second.

    "Time dilation" doesn't mean that a clock has changed its rate.

    See:
    https://paulba.no/pdf/Mutual_time_dilation.pdf

    You won't read it, of course.

    But you are right about one thing:
    Your idea of "time dilation", namely that some clocks are
    changing their rate, is indeed impossible.


    Do you never read what you are responding to?


    Paul: Equating time with the reading of a clock wouldn't be acceptable
    to most employers; it's so stupid.

    As explained above:

    In _physics_, "time" _must_ be measurable.
    The instrument we use to measure "time" is per definition a "clock".
    So "proper time" is what we measure with clocks.
    There is no alternative.

    You are claiming that "time" can't be measure with a clock.

    Please explain how you will measure time without using a clock. ===============================================================

    Don't ignore this challenge!


    Therefore, when clocks run
    differently under different circumstances, we properly understand this
    is an instrumental error, as when a pendulum clock must be adjusted to various lengths for different latitudes.

    As explained above:

    Nothing affects the rate of a _proper_ clock. It always run at
    it's proper rate, advancing one second per second.

    "Time dilation" doesn't mean that a clock has changed its rate. ===============================================================

    Here you can see what "time-dilation" is according to SR. https://paulba.no/pdf/Mutual_time_dilation.pdf

    ALL the clocks run at their proper rate, no clock changes
    its rate!

    Got it?
    Of course not. You haven't even tried to read it!

    That does not require
    relativity. Some clocks run slower at less gravity (sand and pendulum
    clocks) while some run faster (battery-powered and atomic), so this is
    not time itself changing.

    Don't be ridiculous.
    Of course a proper clock must be independent of environmental
    parameters which may vary where the clock is used.
    These parameters can be temperature, air pressure, acceleration, etc.
    Any clock, even a pendulum clock may serve as a proper clock if
    the resolution and precision is adequate for the purpose at hand,
    but the best clocks we have are atomic clocks based on the frequency
    of the photon associated with a hyperfine transition.
    Only atomic clocks will be adequate for measuring time dilation.


    If a clock doesn't change its rate when time dilates, everything doesn't change in unison. Therefore, it is not time dilation. It is only a
    change in some rates of change.

    "Time dilation" doesn't mean that a clock has changed its rate. ===============================================================



    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Maciej Wozniak@21:1/5 to All on Thu Nov 14 15:18:08 2024
    W dniu 14.11.2024 o 12:07, Paul B. Andersen pisze:

    In _physics_, "time" _must_ be measurable.
    The instrument we use to measure "time" is per definition a "clock".
    So "proper time" is what we measure with clocks.

    After repeating - still bullshit.
    Anyone can check GPS, what is measured
    with clock is - t'=t. Your "proper time" is
    just some absurd delusion of yours.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From LaurenceClarkCrossen@21:1/5 to All on Thu Nov 14 21:24:40 2024
    Paul: Kindly don't put words in people's mouths. I made no such claim.
    Einstein is famous for making the stupid error of equating time with a
    clock reading, and you follow lockstep. What I said is clear: because an
    atomic clock runs faster in space, time doesn't move faster. Your
    relativity is no challenge to debunk. It has been recognized all along
    for facile nonsense. Clearly, atomic clocks aren't proper clocks until
    they are adjusted. If time were to dilate, all rates of change would
    change in unison, so the clock would necessarily have to change its
    rate. See how irrational relativity is. So, you are saying time is
    dilating (actually contracting because the clock is running faster), so
    you slow the clock's rate to proper time, and everything else on the
    satellite is affected by the time dilation and runs fast? Things age
    faster on the satellite? That's nonsense.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From LaurenceClarkCrossen@21:1/5 to All on Thu Nov 14 21:43:14 2024
    Paul: Obviously, you can make atomic clocks in space run as on Earth or
    proper time, just as pendulum clocks can be adjusted to latitude. We
    don't infer from the different rates of pendulum clocks that time runs
    at different rates. We adjust their lengths. You cannot infer from the
    fast running of atomic clocks in space that time is running faster in
    lower gravity. That is nonsense.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From LaurenceClarkCrossen@21:1/5 to All on Thu Nov 14 23:48:18 2024
    Paul: Can we infer from the faster rate of atomic clocks in low gravity
    that all other processes are equally faster on the satellite? No, that
    is an unwarranted inference. Then, time itself doesn't run faster. Only
    the atomic clocks do.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From LaurenceClarkCrossen@21:1/5 to All on Fri Nov 15 04:02:20 2024
    Paul: That atomic clocks in space run faster does not demonstrate or
    even provide any evidence that all processes speed up as would be
    necessary if time itself sped up.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Maciej Wozniak@21:1/5 to All on Fri Nov 15 07:37:58 2024
    W dniu 15.11.2024 o 05:02, LaurenceClarkCrossen pisze:
    Paul: That atomic clocks in space run faster does not demonstrate or
    even provide any evidence that all processes speed up as would be
    necessary if time itself sped up.


    The only thing necessary "if time itself speed up"
    is - reworking measurement procedures. And that's
    what The Shit is trying to do.
    Without success, however, anyone can check GPS,
    serious people responsible for serious measurements
    are rsistant to the ideological madness of physicists.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul B. Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Fri Nov 15 20:02:37 2024
    Den 15.11.2024 00:48, skrev LaurenceClarkCrossen:
    Paul: Can we infer from the faster rate of atomic clocks in low gravity
    that all other processes are equally faster on the satellite? No, that
    is an unwarranted inference. Then, time itself doesn't run faster. Only
    the atomic clocks do.


    Please quote what you are responding to.

    Please, answer this question:

    How do you measure time?


    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul.B.Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Fri Nov 15 19:50:46 2024
    Den 14.11.2024 22:24, skrev LaurenceClarkCrossen:
    Paul: Kindly don't put words in people's mouths. I made no such claim. Einstein is famous for making the stupid error of equating time with a
    clock reading, and you follow lockstep. >

    Please quote what you are responding to.
    The above is probably a response to my statement:

    Den 14.11.2024 12:07, skrev Paul B. Andersen:
    In _physics_, "time" _must_ be measurable.
    The instrument we use to measure "time" is per definition a "clock".
    So "proper time" is what we measure with clocks.
    There is no alternative.

    You are claiming that "time" can't be measure with a clock.

    Please explain how you will measure time without using a clock.
    ===============================================================

    Don't ignore this challenge!


    I won't bother to repeat the above yet again.

    But please, answer this question:

    How do you measure time?

    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From LaurenceClarkCrossen@21:1/5 to All on Fri Nov 15 21:26:33 2024
    Paul: I'm sorry you cannot understand such a simple matter. My answers
    were straightforward and to the point. Please try to understand.

    "How do you measure time?" All methods have weaknesses. Try to consider
    them.

    Anyone can understand that every method of time reckoning, including
    every type of clock, is imperfect for various reasons, and the accuracy
    issue is only one. A clock can be precise yet thrown off when nothing
    else is. That's all you need to understand.

    Anyone reading my comments can easily understand that if the rate of the
    clock changes, that doesn't mean any other rate of change on the
    satellite changes. Then, time itself may not have changed. Where is your evidence that any other rate has changed on the satellite?

    That the atomic clocks change with gravity doesn't prove time itself
    changes.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From LaurenceClarkCrossen@21:1/5 to All on Fri Nov 15 22:52:24 2024
    Paul: You can measure time very accurately with a pendulum clock, but at
    a different latitude, the gravity is different, so its rate is
    different. Most other rates remain unchanged. Time did not change. Even
    a child should understand and acknowledge this.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul B. Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Sat Nov 16 15:04:42 2024
    Den 15.11.2024 23:52, skrev LaurenceClarkCrossen:
    Paul: You can measure time very accurately with a pendulum clock, but at
    a different latitude, the gravity is different, so its rate is
    different. Most other rates remain unchanged. Time did not change. Even
    a child should understand and acknowledge this.

    Please quote what you are responding to. ========================================

    But thanks for a clear answer to my question:
    "How do YOU measure time?"

    Your answer is:
    "You can measure time very accurately with a pendulum clock."

    So you know that the only way to measure time is with a clock.

    You are aware of the fact that a pendulum clock is very
    dependent on the environmental parameter "acceleration".

    So you agree to what I previously wrote:

    In _physics_, "time" _must_ be measurable.
    The instrument we use to measure "time" is per definition a "clock".
    So "proper time" is what we measure with clocks.
    There is no alternative.

    Of course a proper clock must be independent of environmental
    parameters which may vary where the clock is used.
    These parameters can be temperature, air pressure, acceleration, etc.
    Any clock, even a pendulum clock may serve as a proper clock if
    the resolution and precision is adequate for the purpose at hand,
    but the best clocks we have are atomic clocks based on the frequency
    of the photon associated with a hyperfine transition.
    Only atomic clocks will be adequate for measuring time dilation.

    An atomic clock with the time unit second as defined by SI
    is independent of all environments parameters. The frequency
    of the photon associated with the hyper fine transition is
    not affected by anything.

    That means that such an atomic clock always will run at its
    proper rate one second per second _per definition_.
    The precision of an atomic clock is one to 1E15 or better.

    Clocks do not "dilate".

    For the umpteenth time:

    "Time dilation" doesn't mean that a clock has changed its rate. ===============================================================

    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul B. Andersen@21:1/5 to Do you still claim that Einstein ma on Sat Nov 16 15:04:53 2024
    Den 15.11.2024 22:26, skrev LaurenceClarkCrossen:
    Paul: I'm sorry you cannot understand such a simple matter. My answers
    were straightforward and to the point. Please try to understand.

    Please quote what you are responding to. ========================================

    "How do you measure time?" All methods have weaknesses. Try to consider
    them.

    The trivial fact that nothing can be measured with infinite
    precision doesn't change the fact that the only way to measure
    time is with a clock.

    Your comment was:
    "Einstein is famous for making the stupid error of equating
    time with a clock reading."

    That can only be interpreted as that YOU do not make the stupid
    error of equating "time" with what you read off a clock.
    In other words:
    You can't measure time with a clock because a clock doesn't show time.

    But you have now admitted that you must use a clock to measure time.
    "You can measure time very accurately with a pendulum clock."
    Which means that you know that "time" is what a clock shows.

    Do you still claim that Einstein made a stupid error when he said
    that clocks show time?


    Anyone can understand that every method of time reckoning, including
    every type of clock, is imperfect for various reasons, and the accuracy
    issue is only one.

    Quite.
    Time can not be measured with infinite precision.
    So what?


    A clock can be precise yet thrown off when nothing
    else is. That's all you need to understand.

    Doesn't parse.


    Anyone reading my comments can easily understand that if the rate of the clock changes, that doesn't mean any other rate of change on the
    satellite changes. Then, time itself may not have changed. Where is your evidence that any other rate has changed on the satellite?

    It is obviously ridiculous to claim that "time itself" changes
    because a clock changes. Clocks used in satellites are always
    atomic clocks with precision one to 1E15 or better.
    They _never_ change their rate due to change of altitude
    or speed or anything else-


    That the atomic clocks change with gravity doesn't prove time itself
    changes.

    For the umpteenth time:

    Atomic clocks don't change with gravity.
    Nothing affects the rate of a _proper_ clock. It always run at
    it's proper rate, advancing one second per second.

    "Time dilation" doesn't mean that a clock has changed its rate. ===============================================================


    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From LaurenceClarkCrossen@21:1/5 to All on Sat Nov 16 21:36:10 2024
    Paul:

    Replying to your latest comments including but not limited to:

    "It is obviously ridiculous to claim that "time itself" changes
    because a clock changes. Clocks used in satellites are always
    atomic clocks with precision one to 1E15 or better.
    They _never_ change their rate due to change of altitude
    or speed or anything else-


    That the atomic clocks change with gravity doesn't prove time itself
    changes.

    For the umpteenth time:

    Atomic clocks don't change with gravity.
    Nothing affects the rate of a _proper_ clock. It always run at
    it's proper rate, advancing one second per second.

    "Time dilation" doesn't mean that a clock has changed its rate." -----------------------------------------------------------------

    A reasonable person would acknowledge that the atomic clock's rate can
    vary when most other rates do not. Time on the satellite is the distance traveled divided by the speed. The nuclear clock differs from that until
    it is adjusted for the effects of gravity. This has nothing to do with
    time itself dilating/contracting. This is correctly regarded as an
    instrumental error. The rate of an atomic clock in space provides no
    evidence for time dilation. It is a stupid error to equate the reading
    on clocks with time.

    I said the accuracy is only one issue. My issue was not with the
    precision. Please don't put words in my mouth. You couldn't understand
    that the atomic cock can function differently while everything else is unchanged, so time itself is unchanged.

    According to the European Space Agency, atomic clocks run faster in
    space: "Einstein’s principle details how gravity interferes with time
    and space. One of its most interesting manifestations is time dilation
    due to gravity. This effect has been proven by comparing clocks at
    different altitudes such as on mountains, in valleys and in space.
    Clocks at higher altitude show time passes faster with respect to a
    clock on the Earth surface as there is less gravity from Earth the
    farther you are from our planet." - https://www.esa.int/Science_Exploration/Human_and_Robotic_Exploration/Research/Clocks_gravity_and_the_limits_of_relativity


    And: "The NIST experiments focused on two scenarios predicted by
    Einstein's theories of relativity. First, when two clocks are subjected
    to unequal gravitational forces due to their different elevations above
    the surface of the Earth, the higher clock—experiencing a smaller gravitational force—runs faster." - https://www.nist.gov/news-events/news/2010/09/nist-pair-aluminum-atomic-clocks-reveal-einsteins-relativity-personal-scale

    I agree that it is obviously ridiculous to claim time itself changes
    because a clock changes. However, the ESA does just this in the above
    quote.

    You lied when you said, "Atomic clocks don't change with gravity."
    You lied when you said, "They _never_ change their rate due to change of altitude or speed or anything else-"

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Maciej Wozniak@21:1/5 to All on Sun Nov 17 18:11:08 2024
    W dniu 17.11.2024 o 14:10, ProkaryoticCaspaseHomolog pisze:


    It will do no good for me to point out your misunderstandings, since I
    am sure that it has already been explained to you countless times the distinction between gravitational force

    No such thing; a common sense prejudice,
    refuted by your idiot guru.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul B. Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Sun Nov 17 22:20:09 2024
    Den 16.11.2024 22:36, skrev LaurenceClarkCrossen:
    Paul B. Andersen wrote:

    "It is obviously ridiculous to claim that "time itself" changes
    because a clock changes. Clocks used in satellites are always
    atomic clocks with precision one to 1E15 or better.
    They _never_ change their rate due to change of altitude
    or speed or anything else-

    For the umpteenth time:

    Atomic clocks don't change with gravity.
    Nothing affects the rate of a _proper_ clock. It always run at
    it's proper rate, advancing one second per second.

    "Time dilation" doesn't mean that a clock has changed its rate."
    -----------------------------------------------------------------


    According to the European Space Agency, atomic clocks run faster in
    space: "Einstein’s principle details how gravity interferes with time
    and space. One of its most interesting manifestations is time dilation
    due to gravity. This effect has been proven by comparing clocks at
    different altitudes such as on mountains, in valleys and in space.
    Clocks at higher altitude show time passes faster with respect to a
    clock on the Earth surface as there is less gravity from Earth the
    farther you are from our planet." - https://www.esa.int/Science_Exploration/Human_and_Robotic_Exploration/ Research/Clocks_gravity_and_the_limits_of_relativity


    And: "The NIST experiments focused on two scenarios predicted by
    Einstein's theories of relativity. First, when two clocks are subjected
    to unequal gravitational forces due to their different elevations above
    the surface of the Earth, the higher clock—experiencing a smaller gravitational force—runs faster." - https://www.nist.gov/news-events/news/2010/09/nist-pair-aluminum-atomic-clocks-reveal-einsteins-relativity-personal-scale

    The quotations above are not written by scientists, it is news
    written by journalists who don't know what they are talking about.

    I quote from your last reference:
    "Scientists have known for decades that time passes faster
    at higher elevations — a curious aspect of Einstein's theories
    of relativity that previously has been measured by comparing
    clocks on the Earth's surface and a high-flying rocket."

    What does this mean?

    Note that "clocks on the Earth's surface" will be synchronous with UTC.

    Consider the following:
    UTC is the coordinate time used in the non-rotating Earth centred
    frame of reference (ECI-frame). Coordinate time is NOT proper time!

    Given two satellites in circular orbit around the Earth.
    Satellite A has the orbital time half a sidereal day measured in UTC.
    Satellite B has the orbital time 1h 32m 37s measured in UTC.

    Let t be the UTC-coordinate time of the satellite,
    Let τ be the proper time of a clock in the satellite.

    We then have: (according to GR, but experimentally verified)
    Satellite A: dτ/dt = (1 + 4.4647e-10)
    Satellite B: dτ/dt = (1 - 2.8411e-10)

    Does this mean that according to GR,
    the time in satellite A runs faster than time on Earth's surface?
    Does this mean that according to GR,
    the time in satellite B runs slower than time on Earth's surface?
    Shouldn't it run faster?

    Imagine you are in one of the satellites with no windows.
    You have an atomic clock ticking out seconds as defined by SI.
    Has it even any meaning to ask if your time runs faster
    or slower than does time on the Earth?
    Of course not.
    Your clock runs at its proper rate, and advances one second
    per second, neither your clock nor your pulse are affected of your
    position in the universe, or your distance to the Earth or Sun
    or the Andromeda galaxy, or your speed relative to anything.

    You are weightless in a closed room, and nothing outside
    that room can affect you in any way.

    ---------------

    But lets revert to satellite A for moment.

    The orbital time of the satellite is:
    Measured with UTC: 43082.045250000 s
    The proper orbital time: 43082.045269235 s
    (This is experimentally confirmed.)

    The difference between the proper orbital time
    and the orbital time measured by coordinate time in
    the ECI frame is 19.235 μs.


    This difference is often called "time dilation".
    Which is a misnomer, no time is "dilated".

    Clocks and thus "time" always run at their normal rate,
    and advance a second per second.


    I agree that it is obviously ridiculous to claim time itself changes
    because a clock changes. However, the ESA does just this in the above
    quote.

    You lied when you said, "Atomic clocks don't change with gravity."
    You lied when you said, "They _never_ change their rate due to change of altitude or speed or anything else-"

    Nether I nor the scientists at ESA lied.

    Some journalists trying to explain news about experiments
    "lied" because they don't know better.

    What GR say is not a matter of opinion, it is a matter of fact.
    GR say that clocks always run at their proper rate.
    Those who claim otherwise don't know GR.

    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)