• What is a photon

    From bertitaylor@21:1/5 to All on Sun Jun 1 10:03:24 2025
    XPost: sci.physics, sci.math

    A photon is a brief electromagnetic wave pulse travelling a light speed
    in the medium of aether.

    Following antenna theory, of asymmetry in the electron orbit from
    external excitation causing vibration to aether. A change in electric
    field causes a change in the magnetic field, which again causes a
    electric field, which creates a magnetic field, and so on and on,
    infinitely infinitely.

    Woof woof woof woof, great is the design of the universe and wonderful
    its workings, when seen in correct detail.

    Bertietaylor

    --

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  • From Julio Di Egidio@21:1/5 to Paul B. Andersen on Sun Jun 1 13:29:03 2025
    XPost: sci.physics

    On 01/06/2025 12:46, Paul B. Andersen wrote:
    Den 01.06.2025 12:03, skrev bertitaylor:
    A photon is a brief electromagnetic wave pulse travelling a light speed
    in the medium of aether.

    Following antenna theory, of asymmetry in the electron orbit from
    external excitation causing vibration to aether. A change in electric
    field causes a change in the magnetic field, which again causes a
    electric field, which creates a magnetic field, and so on and on,
    infinitely infinitely.

    Experiments show that the speed of light is invariant: [...]
    How is that possible if light is waves in an aether ?

    "Fields are not objects that move around in space."

    Mistaking the Map for the Territory in Physics - J. Barandes <https://youtu.be/9068pS75Uds?si=WXQmwVYg7kyBxAyN>

    (Need to reconsider ether theory. And decoherence.)

    -Julio

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  • From J. J. Lodder@21:1/5 to Chris M. Thomasson on Mon Jun 2 20:21:50 2025
    XPost: sci.physics, sci.math

    Chris M. Thomasson <chris.m.thomasson.1@gmail.com> wrote:

    On 6/1/2025 3:03 AM, bertitaylor wrote:
    A photon is a brief electromagnetic wave pulse travelling a light speed
    in the medium of aether.

    Think of a laser. Emitting photons, or radiation. All with the same spin?

    Depends on the polarisation state.
    So whatever you want,

    Jan

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  • From Bertitaylor@21:1/5 to Jan Panteltje on Tue Jun 3 11:39:43 2025
    XPost: sci.physics

    On Tue, 3 Jun 2025 10:45:42 +0000, Jan Panteltje wrote:

    On Mon, 2 Jun 2025 12:47:56 +0000, Jan Panteltje wrote:

    Le 01/06/2025 à 12:03, bertietaylor@myyahoo.com (bertitaylor) a écrit : >>>>
    causing vibration to aether.

    Bertietaylor

    --

    to aether?

    After all the trouble we've gone to to refute and get rid of it, you want >>>>to reintroduce it?

    R.H.

    Have not posted to this group for a long time.

    Fysicks has gone 'astray' after them jews forced everybody to parrot
    Albert Onestone
    Only because he recommended to Johnson I think it was? to develop nukes. >>> That Albert E. was a clueless idiot, his way of thinking was already
    proven wrong by the Alain Aspect:
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Alain_Aspect

    Now as to those solutions, reality.
    Imagine a space full of (very small) particles
    Now imagine those moving.
    Not true?
    Read this paper by somebody from CERN (you must have heard of CERN?):
    http://cds.cern.ch/record/301528/files/open-96-008.pdf

    Now we can have gravity, Le Sage theory of gravity:
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Le_Sage%27s_theory_of_gravitation

    Light is a wave in that sea of particles.

    Wrong. aether is the medium for light wave and that is infinitely fine
    and elastic solid. So fine that electrons ho through with no loss of >>momentum.

    Call it aether or whatever, 'solid' is a bit limiting term, and
    'infinitely' does not exist.

    Solid means the elements remain fixed to each other in space, and
    infinity (asheem) and eternity (sanatan) are Indic basics Abrahamics
    cannot grasp.


    WOOF woof-woof woof woof-woof Woof

    Dear doggy
    Try reading the links I gave, do some web searches perhaps,

    Why waste time on rubbish!

    it is all very simple.

    No, it is wrong and ridiculous too

    As is life: just a chemical reaction.

    Much more, ape, than that.

    Al should read the links divine to Arindam's physics and metaphysics and
    hang upon his every word.






    Bertietaylor

    Like sound in water, its speed is depending on the density of the
    medium, the particles in this case.
    (water pressure).
    Also, like sound in the wind, its speed depends on the direction of the
    medium (particles) too.

    Clocks run slower in a 'gravity well' (near earth).
    Close to earth more Le Sage particles are intercepted, medium is less
    dense, light is slower.
    In 'free' space (outside earth) particle density is higher and clocks
    run faster,
    like a pendulum of a clock gets more compressed and shorter make the
    clock run faster.


    Einstein with 'curved space' was a idiot.
    Mathematicians like to do divide by zero and create black holes and
    infinities.
    There are no 'infinities' in nature, even kids know that something will
    eventually break down if you stress it hard enough.

    Einstein was a fake, he got e=m.c^2 from somebody else,
    Bose-Einstein condensate was stolen from Bose, Einstein put his name on
    it.
    His e=m.c^2 likely likely came from his wife who was a mama-tician IIRC. >>>
    Boycott all US products as long as they support genocide and land
    stealing by jews
    Not that US makes any useful products anyways,...
    That was many years ago before idiots like Trump and Musk (drug
    addicted) took over.

    So.. simple explanation, simple solutions
    Unlike in medieval times when the church hammered in the heads that the
    sun orbited the earth and mathematicians from those days
    even made nice calculation showing it to be true.

    Bit like the electric car climate change terrorists groups try to
    destroy power infrastructure worldwide.
    We need diversity in power generation and to bring every power source we >>> can online to protect this species against the real changes.
    http://old.world-mysteries.com/alignments/mpl_al3b.htm
    Milankovich cycles

    And bomb - and fallout shelters, as US is working very hard on starting
    a WW3 (going to nuke Iran??) and UK and Europe militarizing.
    OTOH without Hitler and Von Braun no man would have landed on the moon.

    One can wonder if, when space is full of particles, like water molecules >>> in a sea,
    a propeller sort of would give thrust if rotated, maybe a chiral
    superconductor?
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eugene_Podkletnov
    And what happened to Ning Lee?
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ning_Li_(physicist)
    Did she know too much?
    What is hidden from the masses?
    Viking Mars experiment was already positive for life:
    http://www.gillevin.com/

    Dont' be:
    google.com/search?q=youtube+another+brick+in+the+wall+pink+floyd&sca_esv=f6bc877b3d7fa12d

    Revolt!!!

    --

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  • From Paul.B.Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Tue Jun 3 13:22:38 2025
    XPost: sci.physics

    Den 02.06.2025 05:16, skrev Bertietaylor:
    On 01/06/2025 12:46, Paul B. Andersen wrote:
    Den 01.06.2025 12:03, skrev bertitaylor:
    A photon is a brief electromagnetic wave pulse travelling a light speed >>>> in the medium of aether.



    Experiments show that the speed of light is invariant: [...]
    How is that possible if light is waves in an aether ?


    Speed of light has to be variant in the Copernican model. Light is a
    wave. All waves need media to propagate. Light's medium is aether.

    A bit confused, Bertietaylor?
    The Copernican model is wrong, the Sun isn't the centre of the Universe.
    And in 1543 Copernicus knew nothing about the speed of light.

    You obviously meant to refer to the "Copenhagen interpretation",
    that is the interpretation of quantum mechanics given
    by Bohr and Heisenberg in ~1925.

    Modern quantum fields theories such as QED are based on SR.
    In QED light is a particle and the speed of light is invariant.

    But forget quantum theories, it is irrelevant to the question
    if the speed of light is invariant.

    Many experiments are performed to answer the question.
    A few of them:

    https://paulba.no/paper/Kennedy_Thorndike.pdf https://paulba.no/paper/Michelson_1913.pdf https://paulba.no/paper/Alvager_et_al.pdf https://paulba.no/paper/Babcock_Bergman.pdf
    https://paulba.no/paper/Brecher.pdf

    The result is that it is thoroughly confirmed that
    the speed of light is invariant.

    So I ask you again:
    How can the speed of a wave in an aether be invariant?

    What is the speed of light measured in a frame of reference
    where the aether is stationary?

    What is the speed of light measured in a frame of reference
    where the aether is moving with the speed v?

    Make my day, claim that the speed of light isn't invariant.

    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

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  • From bertitaylor@21:1/5 to Paul.B.Andersen on Thu Jun 5 11:51:14 2025
    XPost: sci.physics

    On Wed, 4 Jun 2025 12:32:19 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:

    Den 04.06.2025 10:39, skrev Bertitaylor:
    On Tue, 3 Jun 2025 11:22:38 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:

    Den 02.06.2025 05:16, skrev Bertietaylor:
    On 01/06/2025 12:46, Paul B. Andersen wrote:

    Experiments show that the speed of light is invariant: [...]
    How is that possible if light is waves in an aether ?


    Speed of light has to be variant in the Copernican model. Light is a
    wave. All waves need media to propagate. Light's medium is aether.


    A bit confused, Bertietaylor?

    Not at all.

    You use the Copernican model to defend your claim
    that the speed of light isn't invariant, and are
    not confused? :-D

    Why should we be? Are you thick? We have following Arindam said clearly
    that as the Earth moves, light speed has to be variant as the nulls in
    MMX could not happen otherwise. The foolish or sinister physicists have
    either not thought of or ignored the fact that the Earth's movement
    would cause light to move more or less between any two points on the
    moving Earth.


    The Copernican model is wrong, the Sun isn't the centre of the Universe. >>> And in 1543 Copernicus  knew nothing about the speed of light.

    The Sun is at the centre of the solar system, of which you may have
    heard. The Earth goes around the Sun. The Sun and the planets do NOT go
    around the Earth in crystal spheres. Where the stars are supposedly
    light from Heaven casting their light through pricks on the crystal
    spheres.

    And that means that the speed of light isn't invariant? :-D

    Light speed would be invariant as per MMX if the Earth did not move in
    space as the Aristotle model has it.

    We have following Arindam said clearly that as the Earth moves, light
    speed has to be variant as the nulls in MMX could not happen otherwise.
    The foolish or sinister physicists have either not thought of or ignored
    the fact that the Earth's movement would cause light to move more or
    less between any two points on the moving Earth.




    But forget quantum theories, it is irrelevant to the question
    if the speed of light is invariant.

    Many experiments are performed to answer the question.
    A few of them:

    https://paulba.no/paper/Kennedy_Thorndike.pdf
    https://paulba.no/paper/Michelson_1913.pdf
    https://paulba.no/paper/Alvager_et_al.pdf
    https://paulba.no/paper/Babcock_Bergman.pdf
    https://paulba.no/paper/Brecher.pdf

    The result is that it is thoroughly confirmed that
    the speed of light is invariant.

    However the big daddy of them all, the MMX, clearly shows that the light
    speed is variant as the Earth moves. If the fact that light moves a
    greater or lesser distance between two points on the moving Earth is
    ignored, the experiments will start off with a false basis. So nothing
    true will come from such an horrendous bungle.

    So I ask you again:
    How can the speed of a wave in an aether be invariant?

    It is never invariant. It is always variant for all objects in the
    universe move with respect to the common static medium, that is aum or
    aether.

    What is the speed of light measured in a frame of reference
    where the aether is stationary?

    The speed of light will always APPEAR to be invariant in an experiment
    like MMX whereas it is variant. Making APPEARANCE reality, on the
    unscientific subjective basis, is the constitution of Einsteinian pseudo-physics.

    That light speed is variant is clearly shown from the Doppler effect,
    like radar or redshift and blueshift in the stars as the go away or come
    near.



    What is the speed of light measured in a frame of reference
    where the aether is moving with the speed v?

    Aether does not move. The speed of light from a plane flying at speed v
    to a radar on the ground is c+v.

    No answer, Bertietaylor?

    Well, we cannot answer to all as promptly as we might wish. Lots of
    other things to do, what.

    I am beginning to suspect that you are unable to answer the question:
    "How can the speed of a wave in an aether be invariant?"

    It cannot be invariant, it will always be variant. However on Earth we
    may measure the speed as c following the usual methods. Also, Maxwell's equations provide a value for c, which match experimental values.

    Maybe you don't know what invariant means?

    Invariant means that the speed does not depend upon the speed of the
    emitter, in this case.
    Actually it does, as redshift and blueshift shows, and the Doppler radar effect.
    However we cannot find the speed of the moving Earth (or aether drift as
    they called it) as it is just not possible. The light speed variance
    nicely cuts out the extra plus or minus distances travelled.

    This is rather subtle, so requires some deep thinking. Also, it is not
    easy to give up on programming and brainwashing done by the
    establishment for well over a century now.

    Woof woof woof woof woof

    Bertietaylor

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  • From Julio Di Egidio@21:1/5 to Jan Panteltje on Fri Jun 6 11:31:16 2025
    XPost: sci.physics

    On 06/06/2025 07:33, Jan Panteltje wrote:

    I am but a neural net, and as to mama-ticians: math is just a sub circuit
    in the neural net it is not truth related.

    You are simply a clueless + moron.

    If physics means anything, it means that physical reality
    is mathematical. OTOH, thinking that is logical...

    HTH,

    -Julio

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  • From Bertitaylor@21:1/5 to J. J. Lodder on Fri Jun 6 09:22:17 2025
    XPost: sci.physics

    On Fri, 6 Jun 2025 8:36:00 +0000, J. J. Lodder wrote:

    Jan Panteltje <alien@comet.invalid> wrote:

    On Wed, 4 Jun 2025 19:22:52 +0000, x wrote:

    On 6/4/25 08:45, rhertz wrote:
    On Wed, 4 Jun 2025 13:10:58 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:
    A 'photon' is an increment
    of energy or momentum transfer.

    Certainly NOT as energy is a scalar. The energy obtained from a single >>>photon follows the inversae square law. Which has to happen as the
    photon is an atomic-scale brief electromagnetic wave.

    The interesting thing, at least to me, is that I notice 'scientists'
    scream 'PHOTON DETECTED" when their equipment says so.

    Strange. All of you nutters here seem to think
    that scientists are screaming all the time.

    Volume and frequency of screaming depend upon need for funding.

    Genuine scientists use their own resources for research.

    WOOF woof-woof woof woof-woof woof

    Bertietaylor

    I can assure all of you from direct experience
    that they rarely do, if at all.
    They would be quite hoarse if they had to scream
    for every photon detected,

    Jan

    --

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  • From Bertitaylor@21:1/5 to Chris M. Thomasson on Fri Jun 6 22:51:21 2025
    XPost: sci.physics

    On Fri, 6 Jun 2025 19:40:53 +0000, Chris M. Thomasson wrote:

    On 6/5/2025 4:51 AM, bertitaylor wrote:
    On Wed, 4 Jun 2025 12:32:19 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:

    Den 04.06.2025 10:39, skrev Bertitaylor:
    On Tue, 3 Jun 2025 11:22:38 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:

    Den 02.06.2025 05:16, skrev Bertietaylor:
    On 01/06/2025 12:46, Paul B. Andersen wrote:

    Experiments show that the speed of light is invariant: [...]
    How is that possible if light is waves in an aether ?


    Speed of light has to be variant in the Copernican model. Light is a >>>>>> wave. All waves need media to propagate. Light's medium is aether.


    A bit confused, Bertietaylor?

    Not at all.

    You use the Copernican model to defend your claim
    that the speed of light isn't invariant, and are
    not confused? :-D

    Why should we be? Are you thick? We have following Arindam said clearly
    that as the Earth moves, light speed has to be variant as the nulls in
    MMX could not happen otherwise. The foolish or sinister physicists have
    either not thought of or ignored the fact that the Earth's movement
    would cause light to move more or less between any two points on the
    moving Earth.


    The Copernican model is wrong, the Sun isn't the centre of the
    Universe.
    And in 1543 Copernicus  knew nothing about the speed of light.

    The Sun is at the centre of the solar system, of which you may have
    heard. The Earth goes around the Sun. The Sun and the planets do NOT go >>>> around the Earth in crystal spheres. Where the stars are supposedly
    light from Heaven casting their light through pricks on the crystal
    spheres.

    And that means that the speed of light isn't invariant? :-D

    Light speed would be invariant as per MMX if the Earth did not move in
    space as the Aristotle model has it.

    We have following Arindam said clearly that as the Earth moves, light
    speed has to be variant as the nulls in MMX could not happen otherwise.
    The foolish or sinister physicists have either not thought of or ignored
    the fact that the Earth's movement would cause light to move more or
    less between any two points on the moving Earth.




    But forget quantum theories, it is irrelevant to the question
    if the speed of light is invariant.

    Many experiments are performed to answer the question.
    A few of them:

    https://paulba.no/paper/Kennedy_Thorndike.pdf
    https://paulba.no/paper/Michelson_1913.pdf
    https://paulba.no/paper/Alvager_et_al.pdf
    https://paulba.no/paper/Babcock_Bergman.pdf
    https://paulba.no/paper/Brecher.pdf

    The result is that it is thoroughly confirmed that
    the speed of light is invariant.

    However the big daddy of them all, the MMX, clearly shows that the light
    speed is variant as the Earth moves. If the fact that light moves a
    greater or lesser distance between two points on the moving Earth is
    ignored, the experiments will start off with a false basis.  So nothing
    true will come from such an horrendous bungle.

    So I ask you again:
    How can the speed of a wave in an aether be invariant?

    It is never invariant. It is always variant for all objects in the
    universe move with respect to the common static medium, that is aum or
    aether.

    What is the speed of light measured in a frame of reference
    where the aether is stationary?

    The speed of light will always APPEAR to be invariant in an experiment
    like MMX whereas it is variant. Making APPEARANCE reality, on the
    unscientific subjective basis, is the constitution of Einsteinian
    pseudo-physics.

    That light speed is variant is clearly shown from the Doppler effect,
    like radar or redshift and blueshift in the stars as the go away or come
    near.



    What is the speed of light measured in a frame of reference
    where the aether is moving with the speed v?

    Aether does not move. The speed of light from a plane flying at speed v
    to a radar on the ground is c+v.

    No answer, Bertietaylor?

    Well, we cannot answer to all as promptly as we might wish. Lots of
    other things to do, what.

    I am beginning to suspect that you are unable to answer the question:
    "How can the speed of a wave in an aether be invariant?"

    It cannot be invariant, it will always be variant. However on Earth we
    may measure the speed as c following the usual methods. Also, Maxwell's
    equations provide a value for c, which match experimental values.

    Maybe you don't know what invariant means?

    Invariant means that the speed does not depend upon the speed of the
    emitter, in this case.
    Actually it does, as redshift and blueshift shows, and the Doppler radar
    effect.
    However we cannot find the speed of the moving Earth (or aether drift as
    they called it) as it is just not possible. The light speed variance
    nicely cuts out the extra plus or minus distances travelled.

    This is rather subtle, so requires some deep thinking. Also, it is not
    easy to give up on programming and brainwashing done by the
    establishment for well over a century now.

    [...]

    Think of a photon riding a field line at light speed, however the path
    is bent and twisted.

    Impossible as the field line will weaken according to inverse square law
    so the photon's mount will change from horse to donkey to snail to near
    nothing meaning it cannot continue at the speed of light.

    WOOF woof-woof woof woof-woof

    Bertietaylor



    So, it's going to take a "little" longer to get
    through that area in space? A straight field line, vs a twisted one.

    Think if the field lines are infinitely dense. These lines are there to visually allow us to "see" the bent twisted nature of the field, say
    around a dense cluster of galaxies...

    Fair enough, or kook ville?

    --

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  • From =?UTF-8?Q?Maciej_Wo=C5=BAniak?=@21:1/5 to Paul.B.Andersen on Wed Jun 11 13:20:41 2025
    XPost: sci.physics

    On 6/10/2025 8:59 PM, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:
    Many experiments have confirmed the invariance of the speed of light,
    and no experiment have shown otherwise.

    If a fanatic idiot says it must be true.

    Even his idiot guru, however, was unable
    to stick to this absurd for a long time
    and his GR shit had to withdraw from it.


    It would be interesting to see the math that shows that
    Doppler shift of EM-radiation implies that the speed of light
    is different in different inertial frames.

    As light/EM-radiation, speed and inertial
    frames are out of math - it would be
    interesting indeed.

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  • From J. J. Lodder@21:1/5 to Thomas Heger on Thu Jun 12 13:18:19 2025
    XPost: sci.physics

    Thomas Heger <ttt_heg@web.de> wrote:

    Am Mittwoch000011, 11.06.2025 um 11:35 schrieb J. J. Lodder:
    Thomas Heger <ttt_heg@web.de> wrote:

    Am Montag000009, 09.06.2025 um 07:33 schrieb Bertitaylor:
    On Mon, 9 Jun 2025 4:46:57 +0000, Thomas Heger wrote:

    Am Donnerstag000005, 05.06.2025 um 13:51 schrieb bertitaylor:
    On Wed, 4 Jun 2025 12:32:19 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:

    Den 04.06.2025 10:39, skrev Bertitaylor:
    On Tue, 3 Jun 2025 11:22:38 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:

    Den 02.06.2025 05:16, skrev Bertietaylor:
    On 01/06/2025 12:46, Paul B. Andersen wrote:

    Experiments show that the speed of light is invariant: [...] >>>>>>>>>>> How is that possible if light is waves in an aether ?


    Speed of light has to be variant in the Copernican model. Light is a
    wave. All waves need media to propagate. Light's medium is aether. >>>>>>

    A bit confused, Bertietaylor?

    Not at all.

    You use the Copernican model to defend your claim
    that the speed of light isn't invariant, and are
    not confused? :-D

    Why should we be? Are you thick? We have following Arindam said clearly >>>>> that as the Earth moves, light speed has to be variant as the nulls in >>>>> MMX could not happen otherwise. The foolish or sinister physicists have >>>>> either not thought of or ignored the fact that the Earth's movement >>>>> would cause light to move more or less between any two points on the >>>>> moving Earth.


    The Copernican model is wrong, the Sun isn't the centre of the >>>>>>>> Universe.
    And in 1543 Copernicus knew nothing about the speed of light. >>>>>>
    The Sun is at the centre of the solar system, of which you may have >>>>>>> heard. The Earth goes around the Sun. The Sun and the planets do >>>>>>> NOT go
    around the Earth in crystal spheres. Where the stars are supposedly >>>>>>> light from Heaven casting their light through pricks on the crystal >>>>>>> spheres.

    And that means that the speed of light isn't invariant? :-D

    Light speed would be invariant as per MMX if the Earth did not move in >>>>> space as the Aristotle model has it.

    We have following Arindam said clearly that as the Earth moves, light >>>>> speed has to be variant as the nulls in MMX could not happen otherwise. >>>>> The foolish or sinister physicists have either not thought of or ignored
    the fact that the Earth's movement would cause light to move more or >>>>> less between any two points on the moving Earth.




    But forget quantum theories, it is irrelevant to the question >>>>>>>> if the speed of light is invariant.

    Many experiments are performed to answer the question.
    A few of them:

    https://paulba.no/paper/Kennedy_Thorndike.pdf
    https://paulba.no/paper/Michelson_1913.pdf
    https://paulba.no/paper/Alvager_et_al.pdf
    https://paulba.no/paper/Babcock_Bergman.pdf
    https://paulba.no/paper/Brecher.pdf

    The result is that it is thoroughly confirmed that
    the speed of light is invariant.

    However the big daddy of them all, the MMX, clearly shows that the light
    speed is variant as the Earth moves. If the fact that light moves a >>>>> greater or lesser distance between two points on the moving Earth is >>>>> ignored, the experiments will start off with a false basis. So nothing >>>>> true will come from such an horrendous bungle.

    So I ask you again:
    How can the speed of a wave in an aether be invariant?

    It is never invariant. It is always variant for all objects in the >>>>> universe move with respect to the common static medium, that is aum or >>>>> aether.

    What is the speed of light measured in a frame of reference
    where the aether is stationary?

    The speed of light will always APPEAR to be invariant in an experiment >>>>> like MMX whereas it is variant. Making APPEARANCE reality, on the
    unscientific subjective basis, is the constitution of Einsteinian
    pseudo-physics.

    That light speed is variant is clearly shown from the Doppler effect, >>>>> like radar or redshift and blueshift in the stars as the go away or come
    near.



    What is the speed of light measured in a frame of reference
    where the aether is moving with the speed v?

    Aether does not move. The speed of light from a plane flying at speed v >>>>> to a radar on the ground is c+v.

    No answer, Bertietaylor?

    Well, we cannot answer to all as promptly as we might wish. Lots of >>>>> other things to do, what.

    I am beginning to suspect that you are unable to answer the question: >>>>>> "How can the speed of a wave in an aether be invariant?"

    It cannot be invariant, it will always be variant. However on Earth we >>>>> may measure the speed as c following the usual methods. Also, Maxwell's >>>>> equations provide a value for c, which match experimental values. >>>>>>
    Maybe you don't know what invariant means?

    Invariant means that the speed does not depend upon the speed of the >>>>> emitter, in this case.

    Actually 'invarinat speed of light' means, that light travels always >>>> with the same speed through vacuum.

    As measured from the moving Earth, yes. It also matches the value found >>> from Maxwell's equations and the values of permittivity and
    permeability, triumphantly showing the wave nature of light. However
    with respect to static solid aether filling the universe it's speed
    depends upon the velocity of its emitter.


    ALL velocities are 'observer dependent', if you attatch the frame of
    reference to the observer.

    Except for the speed of light.

    There is no 'except'!

    Velocity IS frame-dependent!

    This is inevitable and also the case for light.

    Shouting doesn't make it so,
    [snip more garbage]

    Jan

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From =?UTF-8?Q?Maciej_Wo=C5=BAniak?=@21:1/5 to Paul.B.Andersen on Fri Jun 13 13:25:05 2025
    XPost: sci.physics

    On 6/12/2025 9:11 PM, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:
    Den 12.06.2025 06:12, skrev Thomas Heger:

    Velocity IS frame-dependent!

    This is inevitable and also the case for light.

    No.
    It is experimentally confirmed

    A lie.

    that the speed of light in vacuum
    is invariant

    Even your idiot guru was unable to
    stick to this absurd for a long time
    and his GR shit had to withdraw from it.

    , which means that it is the same in all inertial
    frames of reference.

    A lie again, it doesn't mean that.


    https://paulba.no/paper/Kennedy_Thorndike.pdf https://paulba.no/paper/Michelson_1913.pdf https://paulba.no/paper/Alvager_et_al.pdf https://paulba.no/paper/Babcock_Bergman.pdf https://paulba.no/paper/Brecher.pdf

    This is what all the cranks in this forum fail to understand.

    We do understand, you're an incredibly
    stupid piece of fanatic, lying shit, and
    so are your fellow cultists.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Julio Di Egidio@21:1/5 to Ross Finlayson on Fri Jun 13 13:43:35 2025
    XPost: sci.physics

    On 13/06/2025 06:58, Ross Finlayson wrote:

    Photons are electron-worths of light, in energy,
    in a very small region, for a very small amount of time.

    Ideas without referent or substance: indeed, you could say
    that of any particle, so that's pointless, in fact rather
    missing the point of *a* geometry, not any.

    That said, I do strongly "sympathise" with the it's all fields
    approach, but 1) unless we include the boundary at infinity,
    it's just broken, and 2) does it really and fully work? And
    I haven't yet found a clear answer to that last one: but, if
    the problem is just "time", that's the bit we have now solved.

    Sometimes I think I am talking to a rubber wall.

    -Julio

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Bertitaylor@21:1/5 to Ross Finlayson on Fri Jun 13 11:49:35 2025
    XPost: sci.physics

    On Fri, 13 Jun 2025 4:58:40 +0000, Ross Finlayson wrote:

    On 06/06/2025 02:37 AM, Julio Di Egidio wrote:
    On 06/06/2025 11:31, Julio Di Egidio wrote:
    On 06/06/2025 07:33, Jan Panteltje wrote:

    I am but a neural net, and as to mama-ticians: math is just a sub
    circuit
    in the neural net it is not truth related.

    You are simply a clueless + moron.

    If physics means anything, it means that physical reality
    is mathematical. OTOH, thinking that is logical...

    HTH,

    Eh, that too, but I meant to say "it's thinking that is logical".

    (Logic is *not* mathematics and neither is a subbranch of the
    other, contrary to widespread brainwashing to the contrary, up
    to logicism on a side and the lying with numbers on the other.)

    -Julio




    Photons are electron-worths of light, in energy,
    in a very small region, for a very small amount of time.

    Like bosons, pions, neutrinos, etc. and like big bangs and black holes
    their reality status the way you say are as trolls, goblins, mermaids,
    etc.

    WOOF woof-woof woof woof-woof woof

    Bertietaylor

    --

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul B. Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Sat Jun 14 22:23:23 2025
    Den 14.06.2025 11:47, skrev Bertitaylor:
    Throwing out Helmholtz, Einstein, Feynman etc. and following Arindam is
    the way for science.


    Quite.
    The physics of Arindam Banerjee, employee of a medical research
    laboratory, is much better. :-D

    Complete works in physics by Arindam Banerjee: https://groups.google.com/g/soc.culture.bengali/c/mbbPlpsbbxk


    "The cause of gravity": https://groups.google.com/g/sci.physics/c/mmigkl3yZYc/m/8Rs16NCXAAAJ

    Quote of the first few statements:
    "The formula for universal gravitation is well known to be,
    as the force F acting between two masses m and M, parted by
    a distance r from their centres of mass, as F=GmM/r^2, where G
    is the gravitational constant found by experiment. Recently
    the author has updated this formula to F=BnN/r^2 where B is
    a constant, and n and N are the number of protons or electrons
    in the masses m and M. It is obvious that as n and N are proportional
    to m and M, this is essentially the same formula with the difference
    that instead of masses, the new formula involves charges. Thus the
    gravitational force is expressed electrostatically, as a manifestation
    of electrostatic force. In other words, there is no difference between
    electrostatic force and gravitational force."

    "The Structure of Heavenly Bodies": https://groups.google.com/d/msg/sci.physics/8jH-SQIFFDo/O1jn3HpiBQAJ

    Quote about the pressure within the Earth:
    "F = G*m*D*pi*4*R/3
    Now when R or the radius of the Earth is zero, which is the case
    when the m is at the centre of the Earth, then F = 0. Now pressure
    is force per unit area, so pressure at the centre of the Earth is
    also zero.
    This looks strange – what of the huge masses all around the body m,
    why are they not crushing m to practically extinction? The point
    is that they are all pulling away at the mass m from all sides –
    so the resultant force acting upon the mass m is zero. It is like
    a body on the surface of the Earth – because the air pressure on
    both sides is equal, the forces cancel, and there is no net force.
    But is somehow the air pressure on one side is diminished (like what
    they did with the Magdeburg hemispheres) then the forces resulting
    from the atmospheric pressure starts to become apparent."


    I will not insult the reader by explaining why I find this hilarious!

    Bertitaylor, did you know that the air pressure in your room is zero,
    because the forces cancel, and there is no net force acting on the air?

    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul.B.Andersen@21:1/5 to Thomas Heger on Sun Jun 15 14:56:20 2025
    XPost: sci.physics

    Den 15.06.2025 10:35, skrev Thomas Heger:
    Am Samstag000014, 14.06.2025 um 11:33 schrieb Paul.B.Andersen:
    Den 13.06.2025 09:55, skrev Thomas Heger:

    Velocity is meant as change of distance per unit of time.

    Since 'distance' is meant as a length of a vector between two points,
    we need a point 'at rest' in the first place, if we like to measure
    velocity.

    Since we cannot use empty space itself as reference, we need to
    define, what we mean by 'at rest'.

    This is actually a little difficult, because 'the universe' or 'the
    background stars' do not provide any 'natural' anchor for position
    vectors.

    So, we need to take what we have and that is actually the observer
    himself, because observers do not move in respect to themselves.

    But: all inertial observers are of equal rights!

    That's why we could use any observer, even hypothetical observers.

    Now this would include, that we measure velocity of something from
    one point, which rests in respect to the object in question and from
    another point, which moves with velocity v.

    This would mean: that object is at rest and moving with velocity c at
    the same time!


    When I drive in my car the speed of the car in front of me
    relative to me is v(t) = dl(t)/dt where l(t) is the distance
    between our cars. Right?

    Does that mean that I am at rest and moving with velocity c
    at the same time?


    When driving your car you usually don't use other cars as reference, but (most likely) the surface of planet Earth.

    If you are driving a car and want to measure the speed of the car
    in front of you relative to you, your car is obviously the reference.

    But that surface does in fact move (actually very fast) and you simply
    ignore that movement.

    You could, however, consider also that movement, which is caused by
    rotation of Earth around its own axis.

    But that axis moves, too, but around the sun. And also the sun moves
    around the center of our home galaxy.

    And even that moves.

    Thomas, you are babbling


    Therefore your odometer needs to show a simplified version of your
    velocity and ignores cosmology entirely.

    An odometer measures distance, not velocity.
    A speedometer consists in principle of an odometer and a clock.

    When you use the speedometer in your car, the car is the reference.
    The speedometer measures the speed of the road relative to your car.

    v = dl/dt

    The distance l is measured with the odometer and the time is
    measured with a clock.
    The speedometer is stationary in your car, so your car is
    the reference, not the road.


    Relative velocities in respect to other cars is mostly not very useful,

    The police who drives after you and measure your speed relative to him
    with a radar finds it very useful.

    -----------------------

    But you failed to answer my question:

    When I drive in my car the speed of the car in front of me
    relative to me is v(t) = dl(t)/dt where l(t) is the distance
    between our cars.

    Does that mean that I am at rest and moving with velocity c
    at the same time?

    Thomas Heger wrote:
    | we measure velocity of something from one point,
    | which rests in respect to the object in question
    | and from another point, which moves with velocity v.
    | This would mean: that object is at rest and moving with
    | velocity c at the same time!

    The point is:
    What is this cryptic statement of yours supposed to mean?

    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul.B.Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Sun Jun 15 20:33:24 2025
    Den 15.06.2025 00:33, skrev Bertitaylor:

    These bunglers had no clue that the Earth was actually moving. And so
    the equipment on the Earth was moving. This light always travels in
    aether greater or lesser distances than marked out. This is a universal phenomenon. No one can know what the speed is wrt the static solid fine aether filling the infinite and eternal universe.


    If EM-radiation were a wave in an aether, it would be as easy
    to measure the speed of Earth relative to the aether,
    as it is to measure the speed of an aeroplane relative to the air.


    The MMX is the big daddy of such velocity experiments. The light speed
    varies with emitter to take care of the extra distances travelled
    between any two points of the moving platform. > Which is Earth in our
    case. Thus the nulls formed are due to light speed variance and not
    light speed invariance.

    The MMX shows that the speed of light is isotropic in all
    inertial frames.

    Waves in a medium are anisotropic in all inertial
    frames but the one that is stationary relative to the medium.

    So MMX shows that light is not a wave in the aether.


    Arindam found this huge bungle back in 2005. Some 20 years ago. As the physicists are a shameless criminal lot they have ignored Arindam's discovery.

    Quite.
    The physics of Arindam Banerjee, employee of a medical research
    laboratory, has discovered much new physics.

    Complete works in physics by Arindam Banerjee: https://groups.google.com/g/soc.culture.bengali/c/mbbPlpsbbxk

    "The cause of gravity": https://groups.google.com/g/sci.physics/c/mmigkl3yZYc/m/8Rs16NCXAAAJ

    Quote of the first few statements:
    "The formula for universal gravitation is well known to be,
    as the force F acting between two masses m and M, parted by
    a distance r from their centres of mass, as F=GmM/r^2, where G
    is the gravitational constant found by experiment. Recently
    the author has updated this formula to F=BnN/r^2 where B is
    a constant, and n and N are the number of protons or electrons
    in the masses m and M. It is obvious that as n and N are proportional
    to m and M, this is essentially the same formula with the difference
    that instead of masses, the new formula involves charges. Thus the
    gravitational force is expressed electrostatically, as a manifestation
    of electrostatic force. In other words, there is no difference between
    electrostatic force and gravitational force."

    Do you, Bertitaylor, like Arindam, claim that the Sun is exerting
    the electrostatic force 3.6e22 N on the Earth?

    I bet you will ignore this question. :-D


    "The Structure of Heavenly Bodies": https://groups.google.com/d/msg/sci.physics/8jH-SQIFFDo/O1jn3HpiBQAJ

    Quote about the pressure within the Earth:
    "F = G*m*D*pi*4*R/3
    Now when R or the radius of the Earth is zero, which is the case
    when the m is at the centre of the Earth, then F = 0. Now pressure
    is force per unit area, so pressure at the centre of the Earth is
    also zero."

    Do you, Bertitaylor, like Arindam, claim that the pressure at
    the centre of the Earth is zero?

    I bet you will ignore this question. :-D

    In that case, I will ask again.

    I may also quote more genial discoveries from Arindam's papers,
    because they are rather entertaining.


    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From =?UTF-8?Q?Maciej_Wo=C5=BAniak?=@21:1/5 to Paul.B.Andersen on Sun Jun 15 21:00:41 2025
    On 6/15/2025 8:33 PM, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:
    Den 15.06.2025 00:33, skrev Bertitaylor:

    These bunglers had no clue that the Earth was actually moving. And so
    the equipment on the Earth was moving. This light always travels in
    aether greater or lesser distances than marked out. This is a universal
    phenomenon. No one can know what the speed is wrt the static solid fine
    aether filling the infinite and eternal universe.


    If EM-radiation were a wave in an aether, it would be as easy
    to measure the speed of Earth relative to the aether,
    as it is to measure the speed of an aeroplane relative to the air.


    The MMX is the big daddy of such velocity experiments. The light speed
    varies with emitter to take care of the extra distances travelled
    between any two points of the moving platform. > Which is Earth in our
    case. Thus the nulls formed are due to light speed variance and not
    light speed invariance.

    The MMX shows that the speed of light is isotropic in all
    inertial frames.

    Waves in a medium are anisotropic in all inertial
    frames but the one that is stationary relative to the medium.

    So MMX shows that light is not a wave in the aether.

    No more than thunders show the power of
    Zeus the Thunderer.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul B. Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Mon Jun 16 22:35:24 2025
    Den 16.06.2025 00:56, skrev Bertitaylor:
    On Sun, 15 Jun 2025 12:36:51 +0000, J. J. Lodder wrote:

    bertitaylor <bertietaylor@myyahoo.com> wrote:

    A photon is a brief electromagnetic wave pulse travelling a light speed
    in the medium of aether.

    For the kiddies: this is wrong.

    No, it is consistent with reality.

    A photon is (by definition) a momentum eigenstate of the EM field,

    Nice bullshit but no kid will swallow that.
    For one thing a field has no mass so no momentum for momentum is mass
    times velocity.
    And eigenstate is a complex math term which is well beyond the scope of
    kids. In this context it makes no sense except to bamboozle the
    pullulating gullible.
    Typical Einsteinian garbage designed to confuse. Anti Science!

    So what is happening?
    What is happening is aetheric vibrations travelling at speed of light to
    and from all the infinite charges in the universe.

    They are caused and created by impacts upon and corresponding
    rectifications the atomic structures that cause or rectify distortions
    to the electronic structure.

    Looks like this will be well within the scope of kiddies, like most of Arindam's physics. That is, all not dealing with his new rail gun design theory which is a bit difficult for kids.

    The physics of Arindam Banerjee, employee of a medical research
    laboratory, is extremely naive, and is, like other fairy tales,
    well suited for kiddies who know no physics.


    "The Structure of Heavenly Bodies": https://groups.google.com/d/msg/sci.physics/8jH-SQIFFDo/O1jn3HpiBQAJ

    Quote about the pressure within the Earth:
    "F = G*m*D*pi*4*R/3
    Now when R or the radius of the Earth is zero, which is the case
    when the m is at the centre of the Earth, then F = 0. Now pressure
    is force per unit area, so pressure at the centre of the Earth is
    also zero. Where the pressure is zero, the temperature is also zero,
    or near zero."

    Do you, Bertitaylor, like Arindam, claim that the pressure at
    the centre of the Earth is zero and the temperature is near 0 K.?

    I bet you will ignore this question. 😂

    In that case, I will ask again.


    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From =?UTF-8?Q?Maciej_Wo=C5=BAniak?=@21:1/5 to Paul B. Andersen on Tue Jun 17 07:48:20 2025
    On 6/16/2025 10:35 PM, Paul B. Andersen wrote:
    Den 16.06.2025 00:56, skrev Bertitaylor:
    On Sun, 15 Jun 2025 12:36:51 +0000, J. J. Lodder wrote:

    bertitaylor <bertietaylor@myyahoo.com> wrote:

    A photon is a brief electromagnetic wave pulse travelling a light speed >>>> in the medium of aether.

    For the kiddies: this is wrong.

    No, it is consistent with reality.

    A photon is (by definition) a momentum eigenstate of the EM field,

    Nice bullshit but no kid will swallow that.
    For one thing a field has no mass so no momentum for momentum is mass
    times velocity.
    And eigenstate is a complex math term which is well beyond the scope of
    kids. In this context it makes no sense except to bamboozle the
    pullulating gullible.
    Typical Einsteinian garbage designed to confuse. Anti Science!

    So what is happening?
    What is happening is aetheric vibrations travelling at speed of light to
    and from all the infinite charges in the universe.

    They are caused and created by impacts upon and corresponding
    rectifications the atomic structures that cause or rectify distortions
    to the electronic structure.

    Looks like this will be well within the scope of kiddies, like most of
    Arindam's physics. That is, all not dealing with his new rail gun design
    theory which is a bit difficult for kids.

    The physics of Arindam Banerjee, employee of a medical research
    laboratory, is extremely naive, and is, like other fairy tales,
    well suited for kiddies who know no physics.

    Well, so is the physics of Einstein, which was
    not even consistent.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul.B.Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Tue Jun 17 22:41:41 2025
    Den 17.06.2025 01:35, skrev Bertitaylor:
    On Mon, 16 Jun 2025 23:14:44 +0000, Bertitaylor wrote:

    On Sun, 15 Jun 2025 18:33:24 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:



    The physics of Arindam Banerjee, employee of a medical research
    laboratory, has discovered much new physics.

    Wrong as always! Arindam never worked in medical research. Wonder where
    you got that from and how low you racist and bigoted creeps will stoop
    to demean and diminish the divine Arindam.

    https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=idsIuzEajTc
    At the very beginning of the video you can read:
    Arindam Banerjee,
    HTN Research Pty Ltd.
    6 September 2022

    https://groups.google.com/g/soc.culture.bengali/c/mbbPlpsbbxk
    Quote:
    " Complete works in physics by Arindam Banerjee
    Arindam Banerjee,
    HTN Research Pty Ltd. Melbourne"

    HTN stands for hypertension. Go figure.

    BTW, why do you think working in a medical research lab
    would "diminish the divine Arindam" ?

    So to his "physics":


    Complete works in physics by Arindam Banerjee:
    https://groups.google.com/g/soc.culture.bengali/c/mbbPlpsbbxk

    "The cause of gravity":
    https://groups.google.com/g/sci.physics/c/mmigkl3yZYc/m/8Rs16NCXAAAJ

    Quote of the first few statements:
      "The formula for universal gravitation is well known to be,
       as the force F acting between two masses m and M, parted by
       a distance r from their centres of mass, as F=GmM/r^2, where G
       is the gravitational constant found by experiment. Recently
       the author has updated this formula to F=BnN/r^2 where B is
       a constant, and n and N are the number of protons or electrons
       in the masses m and M. It is obvious that as n and N are proportional >>>    to m and M, this is essentially the same formula with the difference >>>    that instead of masses, the new formula involves charges. Thus the
       gravitational force is expressed electrostatically, as a
    manifestation
       of electrostatic force. In other words, there is no difference
    between
       electrostatic force and gravitational force."

    Do you, Bertitaylor, like Arindam, claim that the Sun is exerting
    the electrostatic force 3.6e22 N on the Earth?

    The gravitational force between Earth and the Sun is 3.6e22 N.

    Ridiculous question seeing that there is gravitational attraction which
    is really electrostatic.

    Maybe you should read it again?

    The Newtonian formula is F=GmM/r² (1)
    Arindam's formula is: F=BnN/r² (2)
    Where:
    B = G
    n = number of protons and electrons in the mass m
    N = number of protons and electrons in the mass M

    That means:
    m = n⋅mₑ + n⋅mₚ (3)
    M = N⋅mₑ + N⋅mₚ (4)
    where mₑ is the mass of an electron and mₚ is the mass of a proton.

    Inserting (3) and (4) in (2) yields:
    F=BnN/r² ≡ BnN/r²

    So the two equations are identical!

    Since the number of protons and electrons in is the same,
    there is no net electric charge in m. Same with M.

    Do you really not understand that there is no electrostatic
    force between the two neutral masses m and M ?

    Do you still claim:
    "there is gravitational attraction which is really electrostatic"?


    "The Structure of Heavenly Bodies":
    https://groups.google.com/d/msg/sci.physics/8jH-SQIFFDo/O1jn3HpiBQAJ

    Quote about the pressure within the Earth:
      "F = G*m*D*pi*4*R/3
       Now when R or the radius of the Earth is zero, which is the case
       when the m is at the centre of the Earth, then F = 0. Now pressure
       is force per unit area, so pressure at the centre of the Earth is
       also zero."

    Do you, Bertitaylor, like Arindam, claim that the pressure at
    the centre of the Earth is zero?

    Yes da oui si haaN hyaN bilkul zaroor ja with wohls on...

    Thanks for a clear answer.
    You, like Arindam believe that the pressure within the Earth
    is highest right below the surface and is diminishing with depth.

    The equation F = G*m*D*pi*4*R/3 is the gravitational force
    on a mass m when it is a distance R from the centre of the Earth.

    The gravitational force on the mass m at the surface is:
    F = m⋅9.91953 N (we ignore the rotation of the Earth)

    Let's consider the following scenario:
    We have a 1000 m deep cylindrical hole in the surface of the Earth.

    The gravitational force on you standing at the bottom of the hole is:
    F = m⋅9.91790 N

    If your mass is 80 kg, your weight will be 0.1244 N less at
    the bottom of the hole than on the surface.

    So the gravitational force diminish with depth.

    Now we fill the hole with water.
    The pressure at the surface is 1 atm = 1013.25 hPa
    The pressure on you is now 10020 kPa or ca 100 atm.

    The pressure increases with depth, as any scuba diver would tell you.

    How can you, like Arindam, fail to know this?

    If we fill the hole with stone with density 5563 kg/m³
    (the average density of the Earth),
    the pressure at the bottom of the hole becomes:
    55275 kPa or 556 atm

    The pressure at the centre of the Earth is 360 Gpa
    3.5 millions atm.

    Do you still not understand how idiotic Arindam is when he
    claim that the pressure at the centre of the Earth is zero?


    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Bertitaylor@21:1/5 to Paul.B.Andersen on Tue Jun 17 22:28:38 2025
    On Tue, 17 Jun 2025 20:41:41 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:

    Den 17.06.2025 01:35, skrev Bertitaylor:
    On Mon, 16 Jun 2025 23:14:44 +0000, Bertitaylor wrote:

    On Sun, 15 Jun 2025 18:33:24 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:



    The physics of Arindam Banerjee, employee of a medical research
    laboratory, has discovered much new physics.

    Wrong as always! Arindam never worked in medical research. Wonder where
    you got that from and how low you racist and bigoted creeps will stoop
    to demean and diminish the divine Arindam.

    https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=idsIuzEajTc
    At the very beginning of the video you can read:
    Arindam Banerjee,
    HTN Research Pty Ltd.
    6 September 2022

    https://groups.google.com/g/soc.culture.bengali/c/mbbPlpsbbxk
    Quote:
    " Complete works in physics by Arindam Banerjee
    Arindam Banerjee,
    HTN Research Pty Ltd. Melbourne"

    HTN stands for hypertension. Go figure.

    BTW, why do you think working in a medical research lab
    would "diminish the divine Arindam" ?

    So to his "physics":


    Complete works in physics by Arindam Banerjee:
    https://groups.google.com/g/soc.culture.bengali/c/mbbPlpsbbxk

    "The cause of gravity":
    https://groups.google.com/g/sci.physics/c/mmigkl3yZYc/m/8Rs16NCXAAAJ

    Quote of the first few statements:
      "The formula for universal gravitation is well known to be,
       as the force F acting between two masses m and M, parted by
       a distance r from their centres of mass, as F=GmM/r^2, where G
       is the gravitational constant found by experiment. Recently
       the author has updated this formula to F=BnN/r^2 where B is
       a constant, and n and N are the number of protons or electrons
       in the masses m and M. It is obvious that as n and N are proportional >>>>    to m and M, this is essentially the same formula with the difference >>>>    that instead of masses, the new formula involves charges. Thus the >>>>    gravitational force is expressed electrostatically, as a
    manifestation
       of electrostatic force. In other words, there is no difference
    between
       electrostatic force and gravitational force."

    Do you, Bertitaylor, like Arindam, claim that the Sun is exerting
    the electrostatic force 3.6e22 N on the Earth?

    The gravitational force between Earth and the Sun is 3.6e22 N.

    Ridiculous question seeing that there is gravitational attraction which
    is really electrostatic.

    Maybe you should read it again?

    The Newtonian formula is F=GmM/r² (1)
    Arindam's formula is: F=BnN/r² (2)
    Where:
    B = G
    n = number of protons and electrons in the mass m
    N = number of protons and electrons in the mass M

    That means:
    m = n⋅mₑ + n⋅mₚ (3)
    M = N⋅mₑ + N⋅mₚ (4)
    where mₑ is the mass of an electron and mₚ is the mass of a proton.


    Rubbish. That is your idea which is not Arindam's.

    Don't twist meanings to suit your nonsense.

    The whole essay has to be read not just bits which are twisted.

    Arindam DOES NOT TALK OF MASSES ATTRACTING. That is just Newtonian
    thinking which is obsolete. He shows how masses attract when masses are considered charges.

    HE TALKS OF CHARGES ATTRACTING.

    See the diagrams. There are no masses considered. Only charges.

    Typical dishonesty, twisting, manipulating here by Einsteinian fraud.



    Inserting (3) and (4) in (2) yields:
    F=BnN/r² ≡ BnN/r²

    So the two equations are identical!

    Since the number of protons and electrons in is the same,
    there is no net electric charge in m. Same with M.

    Do you really not understand that there is no electrostatic
    force between the two neutral masses m and M ?

    Do you still claim:
    "there is gravitational attraction which is really electrostatic"?


    "The Structure of Heavenly Bodies":
    https://groups.google.com/d/msg/sci.physics/8jH-SQIFFDo/O1jn3HpiBQAJ

    Quote about the pressure within the Earth:
      "F = G*m*D*pi*4*R/3
       Now when R or the radius of the Earth is zero, which is the case
       when the m is at the centre of the Earth, then F = 0. Now pressure >>>>    is force per unit area, so pressure at the centre of the Earth is >>>>    also zero."

    Do you, Bertitaylor, like Arindam, claim that the pressure at
    the centre of the Earth is zero?

    Yes da oui si haaN hyaN bilkul zaroor ja with wohls on...

    Thanks for a clear answer.
    You, like Arindam believe that the pressure within the Earth
    is highest right below the surface and is diminishing with depth.

    The equation F = G*m*D*pi*4*R/3 is the gravitational force
    on a mass m when it is a distance R from the centre of the Earth.

    The gravitational force on the mass m at the surface is:
    F = m⋅9.91953 N (we ignore the rotation of the Earth)

    Let's consider the following scenario:
    We have a 1000 m deep cylindrical hole in the surface of the Earth.

    The gravitational force on you standing at the bottom of the hole is:
    F = m⋅9.91790 N

    If your mass is 80 kg, your weight will be 0.1244 N less at
    the bottom of the hole than on the surface.

    So the gravitational force diminish with depth.

    Now we fill the hole with water.
    The pressure at the surface is 1 atm = 1013.25 hPa
    The pressure on you is now 10020 kPa or ca 100 atm.

    The pressure increases with depth, as any scuba diver would tell you.

    How can you, like Arindam, fail to know this?

    If we fill the hole with stone with density 5563 kg/m³
    (the average density of the Earth),
    the pressure at the bottom of the hole becomes:
    55275 kPa or 556 atm

    The pressure at the centre of the Earth is 360 Gpa
    3.5 millions atm.

    Do you still not understand how idiotic Arindam is when he
    claim that the pressure at the centre of the Earth is zero?


    --

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul.B.Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Thu Jun 19 18:04:13 2025
    On Sun, 15 Jun 2025 18:33:24 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:


    "The cause of gravity":
    https://groups.google.com/g/sci.physics/c/mmigkl3yZYc/m/8Rs16NCXAAAJ >>>>>
    Quote of the first few statements:
      "The formula for universal gravitation is well known to be,
       as the force F acting between two masses m and M, parted by
       a distance r from their centres of mass, as F=GmM/r^2, where G
       is the gravitational constant found by experiment. Recently
       the author has updated this formula to F=BnN/r^2 where B is
       a constant, and n and N are the number of protons or electrons
       in the masses m and M. It is obvious that as n and N are proportional
       to m and M, this is essentially the same formula with the difference >>>>>    that instead of masses, the new formula involves charges. Thus the >>>>>    gravitational force is expressed electrostatically, as a manifestation
       of electrostatic force. In other words, there is no difference between
       electrostatic force and gravitational force."

    Do you, Bertitaylor, like Arindam, claim that the Sun is exerting
    the electrostatic force 3.6e22 N on the Earth?

    Den 17.06.2025 01:35, skrev Bertitaylor:

    Ridiculous question seeing that there is gravitational attraction which
    is really electrostatic.

    On Tue, 17 Jun 2025 20:41:41 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:

    Maybe you should read it again?

    The Newtonian formula is F=GmM/r²   (1)
    Arindam's formula is:    F=BnN/r²   (2)
    Where:
      B = G
      n = number of protons and electrons in the mass m
      N = number of protons and electrons in the mass M

    That means:
       m = n⋅mₑ + n⋅mₚ     (3)
       M = N⋅mₑ + N⋅mₚ     (4)
      where mₑ is the mass of an electron and mₚ is the mass of a proton. >>
    Inserting (3) and (4) in (2) yields:
      F=BnN/r² ≡ BnN/r²

    So the two equations are identical!

    Since the number of protons and electrons in is the same,
    there is no net electric charge in m. Same with M.

    Do you really not understand that there is no electrostatic
    force between the two neutral masses m and M ?

    Do you still claim:
    "there is gravitational attraction which is really electrostatic"?

    Den 18.06.2025 00:28, skrev Bertitaylor:
    No, one assumes masses attract naturally being masses as per Newton.
    Arindam shows they attract because of the atomic configuration causing
    mild electrostatic attraction.

    Arindam thus shows that gravity is a consequence of electrostatic
    attraction being slightly larger than electrostatic repulsion between
    two atoms.

    Let's have a closer look at this.

    Let's consider hydrogen gas in a balloon.
    Two and two atoms will combine to molecules in covalent binding.
    This means that a molecule consists of two protons with two
    electrons moving around them.
    If the temperature is above zero, the heat energy in the gas
    will mainly be kinetic energy of the molecules. They will move and
    bounce off each other which will make pressure in the gas.
    The higher temperature, the faster molecules and the higher pressure.

    Why are the molecules bouncing off each other?
    Because the negative electrons in the two molecules repel each other!

    Two molecules at some distance don't affect each other much,
    even if there is an extremely small gravitational attraction.
    But when the molecules come very close to each, they repel each other! Strongly!

    There is an electrostatic repulsion between atoms,
    strongly depending on the distance between them.
    But there is never an electrostatic attraction between
    neutral atoms.

    Arindam's claim:
    "electrostatic attraction is slightly larger than electrostatic
    repulsion between two atoms"
    Is thus utter nonsense.

    If it was true, the atoms in the air around you would attract each other
    and they would be clumped together on the ground, and there would be no
    air pressure.

    I breathe, ergo Arindam is wrong.

    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul.B.Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Thu Jun 19 20:01:39 2025
    On Sun, 15 Jun 2025 18:33:24 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:

    "The Structure of Heavenly Bodies":
    https://groups.google.com/d/msg/sci.physics/8jH-SQIFFDo/O1jn3HpiBQAJ >>>>>
    Quote about the pressure within the Earth:
      "F = G*m*D*pi*4*R/3
       Now when R or the radius of the Earth is zero, which is the case >>>>>    when the m is at the centre of the Earth, then F = 0. Now pressure >>>>>    is force per unit area, so pressure at the centre of the Earth is >>>>>    also zero."

    Do you, Bertitaylor, like Arindam, claim that the pressure at
    the centre of the Earth is zero?

    Den 17.06.2025 01:35, skrev Bertitaylor:
    Yes

    On Tue, 17 Jun 2025 20:41:41 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:

    Thanks for a clear answer.
    You, like Arindam believe that the pressure within the Earth
    is highest right below the surface and is diminishing with depth.

    The equation F = G*m*D*pi*4*R/3 is the gravitational force
    on a mass m when it is a distance R from the centre of the Earth.

    Den 18.06.2025 03:29, skrev Bertitaylor:

    Wrong. See if you can find where you are wrong.

    As your knowledge of basic physics is far lower than that of any Indian
    kid in middle school in the 1960s no point in continuing.

    You are making a fool of yourself again.

    This equation is taken from Arindam's paper quoted above.
    Arindam:
    " F = G*m*D*pi*4*R/3
    Now when R or the radius of the Earth is zero, which is the case
    when the m is at the centre of the Earth, then F = 0."

    This is correct!

    F is the gravitational force on a body with mass m a distance
    R from the centre of the Earth.

    A more common variant of the equation is:
    g = dF/dm = G*D*pi*4*R/3

    The force on a mass m is F = g*m

    Arindam's knowledge of basic physics is far lower than that
    of any Indian kid in middle school in the 1960s so he believes
    that when the gravitational force on a small mass is zero, then
    the pressure must be zero, which is absolutely ridiculous!


    On Tue, 17 Jun 2025 20:41:41 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:

    The gravitational force on the mass m at the surface is:
      F = m⋅9.91953 N (we ignore the rotation of the Earth)

    Let's consider the following scenario:
    We have a 1000 m deep cylindrical hole in the surface of the Earth.

    The gravitational force on you standing at the bottom of the hole is:
      F = m⋅9.91790 N

    If your mass is 80 kg, your weight will be 0.1244 N less at
    the bottom of the hole than on the surface.

    So the gravitational force diminish with depth.

    Now we fill the hole with water.
    The pressure at the surface is 1 atm = 1013.25 hPa
    The pressure on you is now 10020 kPa or ca 100 atm.

    The pressure increases with depth, as any scuba diver would tell you.

    How can you, like Arindam, fail to know this?

    If we fill the hole with stone with density 5563 kg/m³
    (the average density of the Earth),
    the pressure at the bottom of the hole becomes:
      55275 kPa or 556 atm

    Consider this scenario:
    There is a cylindrical tunnel right through the Earth.
    The cross area of the tunnel is 10 m².
    You jump into the tunnel, and end up weightless at
    the centre of the Earth. No gravitational forces are
    acting on you, as correctly claimed by Arindam.

    Now we fill the tunnel with 710e9 kg (710 Tg) of stone.

    So on each side of you there is a 335 Tg pile of rock,
    and every gram of the rock is gravitationally pulled towards you.
    Sure, you are still weightless, but the piles of rock on ether side
    of you are not.

    The pressure at the centre of the Earth is 360 GPa = 3.5 million atm.


    Do you still not understand how idiotic Arindam is when he
    claim that the pressure at the centre of the Earth is zero?


    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul.B.Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Thu Jun 19 20:33:59 2025
    Den 17.06.2025 01:02, skrev Bertitaylor:
    Paul B. Andersen wrote:

    Do you, Bertitaylor, like Arindam, claim that the pressure at the centre
    of the Earth is zero and the temperature is near 0 K.?

    Yes.
    Woof woof woof woof-woof woof in dog lingo as well.


    And the IQ of a dog?

    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul.B.Andersen@21:1/5 to Any particular reason why you haven on Fri Jun 20 15:10:30 2025
    Den 20.06.2025 01:00, skrev Bertitaylor:

    WOOF woof-woof woof

    Bertietaylor


    Any particular reason why you haven't responded to this post?

    On Sun, 15 Jun 2025 18:33:24 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:

    "The Structure of Heavenly Bodies":
    https://groups.google.com/d/msg/sci.physics/8jH-SQIFFDo/O1jn3HpiBQAJ

    Quote about the pressure within the Earth:
    "F = G*m*D*pi*4*R/3
    Now when R or the radius of the Earth is zero, which is the case
    when the m is at the centre of the Earth, then F = 0. Now pressure
    is force per unit area, so pressure at the centre of the Earth is
    also zero."

    Do you, Bertitaylor, like Arindam, claim that the pressure at
    the centre of the Earth is zero?

    Den 17.06.2025 01:35, skrev Bertitaylor:
    Yes

    On Tue, 17 Jun 2025 20:41:41 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:

    Thanks for a clear answer.
    You, like Arindam believe that the pressure within the Earth
    is highest right below the surface and is diminishing with depth.

    The equation F = G*m*D*pi*4*R/3 is the gravitational force
    on a mass m when it is a distance R from the centre of the Earth.

    Den 18.06.2025 03:29, skrev Bertitaylor:

    Wrong. See if you can find where you are wrong.

    As your knowledge of basic physics is far lower than that of any Indian
    kid in middle school in the 1960s no point in continuing.

    Den 19.06.2025 20:01, skrev Paul.B.Andersen:
    You are making a fool of yourself again.

    This equation is taken from Arindam's paper quoted above.
    Arindam:
    " F = G*m*D*pi*4*R/3
    Now when R or the radius of the Earth is zero, which is the case
    when the m is at the centre of the Earth, then F = 0."

    This is correct!

    F is the gravitational force on a body with mass m a distance
    R from the centre of the Earth.

    A more common variant of the equation is:
    g = dF/dm = G*D*pi*4*R/3

    The force on a mass m is F = g*m

    Arindam's knowledge of basic physics is far lower than that
    of any Indian kid in middle school in the 1960s so he believes
    that when the gravitational force on a small mass is zero, then
    the pressure must be zero, which is absolutely ridiculous!


    On Tue, 17 Jun 2025 20:41:41 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:

    The gravitational force on the mass m at the surface is:
    F = m⋅9.91953 N (we ignore the rotation of the Earth)

    Let's consider the following scenario:
    We have a 1000 m deep cylindrical hole in the surface of the Earth.

    The gravitational force on you standing at the bottom of the hole is:
    F = m⋅9.91790 N

    If your mass is 80 kg, your weight will be 0.1244 N less at
    the bottom of the hole than on the surface.

    So the gravitational force diminish with depth.

    Now we fill the hole with water.
    The pressure at the surface is 1 atm = 1013.25 hPa
    The pressure on you is now 10020 kPa or ca 100 atm.

    The pressure increases with depth, as any scuba diver would tell you.

    How can you, like Arindam, fail to know this?

    If we fill the hole with stone with density 5563 kg/m³
    (the average density of the Earth),
    the pressure at the bottom of the hole becomes:
    55275 kPa or 556 atm

    Den 19.06.2025 20:01, skrev Paul.B.Andersen:
    Consider this scenario:
    There is a cylindrical tunnel right through the Earth.
    The cross area of the tunnel is 10 m².
    You jump into the tunnel, and end up weightless at
    the centre of the Earth. No gravitational forces are
    acting on you, as correctly claimed by Arindam.

    Now we fill the tunnel with 710e9 kg (710 Tg) of stone.

    So on each side of you there is a 335 Tg pile of rock,
    and every gram of the rock is gravitationally pulled towards you.
    Sure, you are still weightless, but the piles of rock on ether side
    of you are not.

    The pressure at the centre of the Earth is 360 GPa = 3.5 million atm.

    Do you still not understand how idiotic Arindam is when he
    claim that the pressure at the centre of the Earth is zero?

    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul.B.Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Sat Jun 21 22:03:05 2025
    Den 21.06.2025 00:38, skrev Bertitaylor:

    Similarly we are not crushed by air pressure when it acts equally in all directions.

    Let's consider a spherical balloon with surface area
    A = 1 m² (radius 0.2821 m).
    The air pressure is P₀ = 1 atm = 101325 N/m²

    Will the pressure in the balloon be:

    A: P = 0 atm = 0 N/m²
    ---------------------
    The force from the air will act on the balloon from all
    direction and opposite forces cancel each other, and
    the force the air exerts on the balloon is F = 0 N.
    The pressure in the balloon is F/A = 0 atm = 0 N/m²
    That's why the pressure within you is zero, and you are not crushed.

    B: P = 1 atm = 101325 N/m²
    --------------------------
    The force the air exerts on the balloon is F = P₀⋅A = 101325 N.
    The pressure in the balloon is F/A = P₀= 1 atm = 101325 N/m².
    The force within you is 101325 N/m², and since your skin area is
    ~1.9 m² (normal male), a force F = 192518 N will push your
    skin outwards, and you will explode.
    Or won't you?

    What is your answer? A or B?


    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul.B.Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Sun Jun 22 21:14:15 2025
    On Sun, 15 Jun 2025 18:33:24 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:

    "The Structure of Heavenly Bodies": Arindam Banerjee, HTN Research Pty Ltd. Melbourne
    https://groups.google.com/d/msg/sci.physics/8jH-SQIFFDo/O1jn3HpiBQAJ >>>>>
    Quote about the pressure within the Earth:
      "F = G*m*D*pi*4*R/3
       Now when R or the radius of the Earth is zero, which is the case >>>>>    when the m is at the centre of the Earth, then F = 0. Now pressure >>>>>    is force per unit area, so pressure at the centre of the Earth is >>>>>    also zero."

    Taken literally, this is of course nonsense.
    Arindam says:
    "When the radius of the Earth is zero, the pressure at the centre of
    the Earth is zero." No Earth, no pressure! :-D

    However, the equation is correct, because:

    The gravitational force F on a mass m at the position R from the centre
    of the Earth is:
    F = G*m*D*pi*4*R/3 (1)
    Where:
    G is the gravitational constant
    D is the average density of the Earth

    Den 21.06.2025 00:38, skrev Bertitaylor:

    Yes, the net force is zero as the mass at the centre of Earth, Sun etc.
    is pulled equally in all directions. Opposites cancel leaving no
    pressure.

    WOOF woof-woof woof woof-woof woof

    Let us take it from the start:

    Equation (1) can be written:
    F = m⋅(4π/3)⋅G⋅D⋅R [N] (1)
    where
    G = 6.6743e-11 N⋅m²/kg²
    D = 5563 kg/m³ average density of the Earth, mass/volume

    We are considering the density to be constant, which make
    the calculation simpler.
    This is however a gross simplification, the density
    varies very much with depth. Near the surface it can be as
    low as 1000 kg/m³ (ocean), and in the inner core as high as
    ~8000 kg/m³ (Nickel/iron).
    This means that our calculations below can not be expected
    to be very precise, but they will give a good indication
    of the order of magnitude of the pressure at the centre of
    the Earth.

    Consider a cylindrical hole with cross area A = 1 m²
    from the surface and down to the centre of the Earth.
    Let R₀ = 6.378e6 m be the radius of the Earth.
    Let your mass be m = 80 kg.

    Standing on the ground, the gravitational force acting on you is:
    F = m⋅(4π/3)⋅G⋅D⋅R₀ = 793.5 N

    Standing at the bottom of the hole,the gravitational force on you is:
    F = m⋅(4π/3)⋅G⋅D⋅0 = 0 N, you are weightless!

    Now we fill the hole with stone with density D = 5563 kg/m³.
    Every gram of that pile of stone is gravitationally pulled
    towards the centre of the Earth, so you has to be as ignorant
    of basic physics as Arindam to fail to understand that the pressure
    at the centre of the Earth must be formidable.

    Let us calculate what it will be.
    Equation (1) above is for a (small) mass at a specific depth.
    But the mass of the pile of stone is distributed all the way
    from the surface to the centre, so we can't use equation (1)
    as it is, so we write it like this:

    dF/dm = (4π/3)⋅G⋅D⋅R [N/kg] (2)

    We have: dm = D⋅A⋅dR [kg] (the mass in the hole)

    dF = (4π/3)⋅G⋅D²⋅A⋅R⋅dR [N]

    The pressure P is F/A

    dP = dF/A = (4π/3)⋅G⋅D²⋅R⋅dR [N/m²]

    P = (4π/3)⋅G⋅D²⋅∫(from 0 to R₀)R⋅dR = (2π/3)⋅G⋅D²⋅R₀² [N/m²]
    P = 176e9 N/m² = 176 GN/m² = 176 GPa

    If you look up on the net, you will see that the pressure
    at the centre is thought to be ~360 GPa.
    Our number is about half by reasons explained above.

    ------------------

    Bertitaylor, if you have elementary knowledge of physics and math,
    you will have no problem with understanding my calculations above,
    and why the pressure at the centre of the Earth is formidable.

    Right?

    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul.B.Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Mon Jun 23 20:46:51 2025
    Den 23.06.2025 00:56, skrev Bertitaylor:



    On Sun, 15 Jun 2025 18:33:24 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:

    "The Structure of Heavenly Bodies": Arindam Banerjee, HTN
    Research Pty
    Ltd. Melbourne
    https://groups.google.com/d/msg/sci.physics/8jH-SQIFFDo/O1jn3HpiBQAJ

    Quote about the pressure within the Earth:
      "F = G*m*D*pi*4*R/3
       Now when R or the radius of the Earth is zero, which is the case
       when the m is at the centre of the Earth, then F = 0. Now pressure >>>>    is force per unit area, so pressure at the centre of the Earth is >>>>    also zero."

    On Sun, 22 Jun 2025 19:14:15 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:
    Taken literally, this is of course nonsense.
    Arindam says:
    "When the radius of the Earth is zero, the pressure at the centre of
    the Earth is zero." No Earth, no pressure! :-D

    However, the equation is correct, because:

    The gravitational force F on a mass m at the position R from the centre
    of the Earth is:
       F = G*m*D*pi*4*R/3  (1)
    Where:
       G is the gravitational constant
       D is the average density of the Earth


    Den 21.06.2025 00:38, skrev Bertitaylor:

    Yes, the net force is zero as the mass at the centre of Earth, Sun etc.
    is pulled equally in all directions. Opposites cancel leaving no
    pressure.

    WOOF woof-woof woof woof-woof woof

    On Sun, 22 Jun 2025 19:14:15 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:

    Let us take it from the start:

    Equation (1) can be written:
      F = m⋅(4π/3)⋅G⋅D⋅R  [N]         (1)
    where
      G = 6.6743e-11 N⋅m²/kg²
      D = 5563 kg/m³ average density of the Earth, mass/volume

      We are considering the density to be constant, which make
      the calculation simpler.
      This is however a gross simplification, the density
      varies very much with depth. Near the surface it can be as
      low as 1000 kg/m³ (ocean), and in the inner core as high as
      ~8000 kg/m³ (Nickel/iron).
      This means that our calculations below can not be expected
      to be very precise, but they will give a good indication
      of the order of magnitude of the pressure at the centre of
      the Earth.

    Consider a cylindrical hole with cross area A = 1 m²
    from the surface and down to the centre of the Earth.
    Let R₀ = 6.378e6 m be the radius of the Earth.
    Let your mass be m = 80 kg.

    Standing on the ground, the gravitational force acting on you is:
      F = m⋅(4π/3)⋅G⋅D⋅R₀ = 793.5 N

    Standing at the bottom of the hole,the gravitational force on you is:
      F = m⋅(4π/3)⋅G⋅D⋅0 = 0 N, you are weightless!

    Now we fill the hole with stone with density D = 5563 kg/m³.
    Every gram of that pile of stone is gravitationally pulled
    towards the centre of the Earth, so you has to be as ignorant
    of basic physics as Arindam to fail to understand that the pressure
    at the centre of the Earth must be formidable.


    Point is, that the stones just above me  will be weightless as me so
    will not cause any pressure upon me.

    And the stones that are higher up will press sideways as any arch does.
    Not down. Surely you don't expect bridges and domes to fall upon you
    when you go under them?

    Consider this scenario:

    We have a swimming pool which is h = 10 m deep.
    We also have a 10 m long tube with cross area A = 1 m².
    The walls of the tube are very thin and flexible.
    We place the tube vertically in the pool.

    Given the constants:
    The air pressure is P₀ = 1 atm = 101,325 N/m²
    The density of water is D = 1000 kg/m²
    The gravitationally acceleration is g = 9.8 m/s²,
    and we can consider it constant over 10 meter.


    The weight of the water in the tube is:
    W₁₀ = g⋅D⋅A⋅h = 98,000 N
    The pressure at the bottom of the pool is:
    P₁₀ = P₀ + W₁₀/A = 199,525 N/m² = 1.97 atm.

    At any point in the pool the pressure is isotropic,
    the same in all direction. So the water in the pool
    will indeed press sideways on the tube.

    Will you therefore say:
    "The water that is higher up will press sideways on
    the tube, as any arc does. Not down.
    So the pressure on the bottom of the tube will be zero.
    Surely you don't expect bridges and domes to fall upon you
    when you go under them?"



    Bit of lateral thinking helps, what?

    Why are you pretending to be as ignorant and stupid as Arindam?

    I don't think you are.
    I think you don't allow yourself to think because you have
    a religious belief in your Messiah Arindam, and think his Gospel
    is a divine revelation.

    So please, allow yourself to think, and read the rest.
    If you find an error in it, please point out exactly
    where and what the error is.

    <snip idiotic barking>


    Let us calculate what it will be.
    Equation (1) above is for a (small) mass at a specific depth.
    But the mass of the pile of stone is distributed all the way
    from the surface to the centre, so we can't use equation (1)
    as it is, so we write it like this:

    dF/dm = (4π/3)⋅G⋅D⋅R [N/kg]      (2)

    We have: dm = D⋅A⋅dR [kg]  (the mass in the hole)

    dF = (4π/3)⋅G⋅D²⋅A⋅R⋅dR [N]

    The pressure P is F/A

    dP = dF/A = (4π/3)⋅G⋅D²⋅R⋅dR [N/m²]

    P = (4π/3)⋅G⋅D²⋅∫(from 0 to R₀)R⋅dR = (2π/3)⋅G⋅D²⋅R₀²  [N/m²]
    P = 176e9 N/m² = 176 GN/m² = 176 GPa

    The weight of the pile of stone is 176 GN


    If you look up on the net, you will see that the pressure
    at the centre is thought to be ~360 GPa.
    Our number is about half by reasons explained above.

    ------------------

    Bertitaylor, if you have elementary knowledge of physics and math,
    you will have no problem with understanding my calculations above,
    and why the pressure at the centre of the Earth is formidable.

    Right?

    Still not right?

    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

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  • From Paul.B.Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Mon Jun 23 22:40:36 2025
    Den 23.06.2025 07:53, skrev bertietaylor:
    On Wed, 11 Jun 2025 18:50:07 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:


    If EM-radiation is a wave in an aether, it would be as easy
    to measure the speed of Earth relative to the aether,
    as it is to measure the speed of an aeroplane relative to the air.


    No. it is impossible, for reasons explained many a time, and once again below. For note,  aether is solid not gaseous like air. For another, the speed of the aeroplane is based upon the rate of movement with respect
    to the ground below it.

    The "Airspeed Indicator" found in all planes measures the speed
    of the air relative to the plane.


    So if I toss a ball in a plane any way, its speed is always the same. I cannot find the speed of the ball one way with respect to the ground.

    This is obvious, and need no "explanation".

    That is because ball speed varies with the speed of the thrower. With
    respect to ground, the throw in the direction of flight will be v + V
    and in the other distance v - V. With respect to the ground the distance
    of ball travel will be greater one way, and lower the other way. So the
    time involved in the travel anyway will be the same, and nothing to do
    with the speed of the ball wrt ground. But wrtg the ball in the plane
    does move faster or slower depending upon direction of throw.

    How is this stupid explanation of the blazing obvious related
    to the measurement of the speed of the alleged ether?

    If this is supposed to show that the MMX can't measure the speed
    of the ether if it had existed, it can only be written by Arindam.


    Similarly for light, with respect to the steady solid aether.

    There is no similarity at all.

    To measure the speed of the aether relative to the Earth, use
    a Michelson interferometer.

    https://paulba.no/paper/Michelson_1887.pdf

    If light were a wave in an aether, the MMX would have measured
    the speed of the aether.

    If you believe otherwise, it can only be because you haven't
    read Michelson's paper, but have read Arindam.

    Maybe you could try to read it?
    But then you have to think for yourself. Unless you are very stupid,
    you will understand that the MMX can measure the aether wind if it
    exists.


    With light speed variant, the distances travelled by light between any
    two points is never the marked out distance - it is something more or
    less. However as the light speed is variant, the value will be the same
    as that comes out from the equations of Maxwell relating to electric permittivity and magnetic permeability.

    Arindam's gobbledegook? :-D

    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

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  • From J. J. Lodder@21:1/5 to Paul.B.Andersen on Tue Jun 24 09:27:15 2025
    Paul.B.Andersen <relativity@paulba.no> wrote:

    Den 23.06.2025 07:53, skrev bertietaylor:
    On Wed, 11 Jun 2025 18:50:07 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:


    If EM-radiation is a wave in an aether, it would be as easy
    to measure the speed of Earth relative to the aether,
    as it is to measure the speed of an aeroplane relative to the air.


    No. it is impossible, for reasons explained many a time, and once again below. For note, aether is solid not gaseous like air. For another, the speed of the aeroplane is based upon the rate of movement with respect
    to the ground below it.

    The "Airspeed Indicator" found in all planes measures the speed
    of the air relative to the plane.

    Almost. What is measured is 'indicated airspeed',

    Jan

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  • From Paul.B.Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Tue Jun 24 22:07:43 2025
    Den 24.06.2025 04:08, skrev bertietaylor:
    On Mon, 23 Jun 2025 18:46:51 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:

    Den 23.06.2025 00:56, skrev Bertitaylor:

     On Sun, 22 Jun 2025 19:14:15 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:

    Now we fill the hole with stone with density D = 5563 kg/m³.
    Every gram of that pile of stone is gravitationally pulled
    towards the centre of the Earth, so you has to be as ignorant
    of basic physics as Arindam to fail to understand that the pressure
    at the centre of the Earth must be formidable.


    Point is, that the stones just above me  will be weightless as me so
    will not cause any pressure upon me.

    And the stones that are higher up will press sideways as any arch does.
    Not down. Surely you don't expect bridges and domes to fall upon you
    when you go under them?


    Consider this scenario:

    We have a swimming pool which is h = 10 m deep.
    We also have a 10 m long tube with cross area A = 1 m².
    The walls of the tube are very thin and flexible.
    We place the tube vertically in the pool.

    Given the constants:
    The air pressure is P₀ = 1 atm = 101,325 N/m²
    The density of water is D = 1000 kg/m²
    The gravitationally acceleration is g = 9.8 m/s²,
    and we can consider it constant over 10 meter.


    The weight of the water in the tube is:
    W₁₀ = g⋅D⋅A⋅h = 98,000 N
    The pressure at the bottom of the pool is:
      P₁₀ = P₀ + W₁₀/A = 199,525 N/m² = 1.97 atm.

    At any point in the pool the pressure is isotropic,
    the same in all direction. So the water in the pool
    will indeed press sideways on the tube.

    Will you therefore say:
    "The water that is higher up will press sideways on
      the tube, as any arc does. Not down.


    No, at the top the water surface is pressed down.

    .. with 1 atm.
    And the water is pressing upwards on the air with 1 atm.

    It presses against the sides.

    With 1 atm.

    Within it is pressed in all directions.

    Including down.

    Because of gravity, it is
    pulled down and without disturbance stays nicely in layers, pressed from above so the water pressure varies with depth, increasing till it meets
    the bottom.

    Where the pressure is 199,525 N/m² = 1.97 atm.

    So you have realised that my calculation above is correct.

    Congratulations, you have now demonstrated that you are
    able to think for yourself and understand that Arindam is wrong.

    According to Arindam, the pressure will diminish with depth,
    and will be 101324.997 N/m² at the bottom of the pool,
    which is 0.0028 N/m² less than the pressure on the surface
    of the pool.

    Nonsensical, no?


      So the pressure on the bottom of the tube will be zero?

    No, it will increase to a maximum depending upon the depth.

    And the maximum pressure will be at the centre of the Earth, where
    it would be formidable even if the Earth were all water.

    However this scenario does not apply as a model for the Earth.

    It sure does, but the pressure would be much higher because
    the density of rock is higher than the density of water.

    Under the Earth's rust, the pressure from above crushed against the huge
    mass below will create high temperature, melting the rocks.
    The molten rocks are lava, and come out with volcanic eruption.

    And the Earth would become empty? :-D

    Please allow yourself to think for yourself, I know you can.

    Below the surface is the crust down to ca. 70 km. This is mostly
    rock. In this there are caves within which the pressure is much
    lower than in the solid stone. There are even giant caves where you
    can explode atom bombs! Here you can have your cathedral where
    the stones in the arc press sideways so the dome don't fall upon
    you when you go under it.

    Below the crust is the mantle down to ca. 2,890 km. It consists
    of rock. But now the pressure is so high that it will be higher
    than the stress the rock can withstand. So the rock is 'crushed'
    and will behave like a very viscous fluid.

    Fact:
    The compressive strength of Granite is 19000 psi = 13.1 MN/m²
    The pressure in the mantle is far above that.

    Below that is the core. The inner core is a solid 'ball' of
    iron and nickel with radius ca. 1,220 km.
    Here the pressure is so formidable that it is far higher than
    the stress the metal can withstand. It will 'float'.


    However this scenario does not last for ever. At some depth below the
    surface the pressure which peaks decreases for the g value decreases.

    Don't be ridiculous. Use your head and think for yourself, and
    don't invent stupidities in a hopeless attempt to save Arindam's
    nonsense.

    The gravitational pull towards the centre will be gradually less
    with the depth. The weight of a mass m [kg] is g⋅m [N].
    g will vary from 9.8 m/s at the surface down to 0 m/s at the centre.
    So the weight of one kg at the surface is 9.8 N, and it will diminish
    as it approaches the centre. But it is always positive!
    So the weight of the mass above you will increase monotonically
    as you approach the centre, and so will the pressure.

    If you allow yourself to think, there is no way you can fail to
    understand this.

    Less mass below, thus, to for the rocks and lava to crush against each
    other. (This is not the same as what happens to the oceans, where
    pressure is very high at the bottom. For there is say 13000-5 Km of
    Earth radius left for pushback. On Earth the lava layers may go down
    some 4000 Km, say, leaving 9000 Km of rock that will insulate the core keeping it cold, while most of the heat from the magma layers will be radiated into outer space.)

    "The rock that will insulate the core, keeping it cold"! :-D
    BTW, you forgot to mention that the pressure is zero.

    This is the kind of stupidity you have to invent in your hopeless
    attempt to save Arindam's nonsense.

    But why do you feel obliged to defend Arindam?

    You have shown above that you know that Arindam is wrong,
    so why do you not allow yourself to admit it?



    Also, the moving fluid unlike the solid masses above that have melted by
    the solid masses above. cannot exert that much force against the rock
    below that thus remain not melted.

    ??? :-D

    Read the following again.
    Do you really find any sense in it?


    Bit of a problem for you, water is liquid and not solid.
    So we do not build bridges made of water.
    Well, an ice bridge in Antarctica or similar, would work but ice is
    solid.

    Below the magma layers (now, it is not all magma, there could be many
    rocks not melted in the magma layers that cause lateral support), there
    is solid rock which press against each other like domes and bridges.

    And you think your stone dome could withstand the weight
    of several GN of stone (liquid or solid)? :-D



    Why are you pretending to be as ignorant and stupid as Arindam?

    I don't think you are.
    I think you don't allow yourself to think because you have
    a religious belief in your Messiah Arindam, and think his Gospel
    is a divine revelation.

    So please, allow yourself to think, and read the rest.
    If you find an error in it, please point out exactly
    where and what the error is.

    Even if you have shown some signs of being able to think,
    I suspect you are mathematically illiterate, so I skip the rest.


    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

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  • From Bertitaylor@21:1/5 to All on Tue Jun 24 22:42:48 2025
    You are an ass, Paul.
    Now, fuck off.

    --

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul.B.Andersen@21:1/5 to Paul.b.Andersen on Wed Jun 25 18:51:32 2025
    Den 25.06.2025 00:42, skrev Bertitaylor:
    You are an ass, Paul.
    Now, fuck off.


    So this is your response to this:

    Paul.b.Andersen wrote:
    | Consider this scenario:
    |
    | We have a swimming pool which is h = 10 m deep.
    | We also have a 10 m long tube with cross area A = 1 m².
    | The walls of the tube are very thin and flexible.
    | We place the tube vertically in the pool.
    |
    | Given the constants:
    | The air pressure is P₀ = 1 atm = 101,325 N/m²
    | The density of water is D = 1000 kg/m²
    | The gravitationally acceleration is g = 9.8 m/s²,
    | and we can consider it constant over 10 meter.
    |

    | The weight of the water in the tube is:
    | W₁₀ = g⋅D⋅A⋅h = 98,000 N
    | The pressure at the bottom of the pool is:
    | P₁₀ = P₀ + W₁₀/A = 199,525 N/m² = 1.97 atm.
    |

    Bertitaylor responded:
    Because of gravity, it [the water] is
    pulled down and without disturbance stays nicely in layers, pressed from above so the water pressure varies with depth, increasing till it meets
    the bottom.

    So we agree, the pressure increases with depth.

    According to Arindam, the pressure will diminish with depth,
    and will be 101324.997 N/m² at the bottom of the pool,
    which is 0.0028 N/m² less than the pressure on the surface
    of the pool.

    That's why I wrote:
    Congratulations, you have now demonstrated that you are
    able to think for yourself and understand that Arindam is wrong.

    I can understand that you now feel like a traitor, having
    betrayed your Messiah Arindam.

    But why do you blame me? :-D

    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

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  • From Thomas Heger@21:1/5 to All on Fri Jun 27 07:26:01 2025
    Am Montag000023, 23.06.2025 um 22:40 schrieb Paul.B.Andersen:
    Den 23.06.2025 07:53, skrev bertietaylor:
    On Wed, 11 Jun 2025 18:50:07 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:


    If EM-radiation is a wave in an aether, it would be as easy
    to measure the speed of Earth relative to the aether,
    as it is to measure the speed of an aeroplane relative to the air.


    No. it is impossible, for reasons explained many a time, and once again
    below. For note,  aether is solid not gaseous like air. For another, the
    speed of the aeroplane is based upon the rate of movement with respect
    to the ground below it.

    The "Airspeed Indicator" found in all planes measures the speed
    of the air relative to the plane.


    So if I toss a ball in a plane any way, its speed is always the same. I
    cannot find the speed of the ball one way with respect to the ground.

    This is obvious, and need no "explanation".

    Actually the surface of planet Earth moves, too.

    This movement is also quite fast, but usually ignored.

    We could, however, use this as a principle and ignore the velocity of
    reference systems in all cases, where we cannot decide, whether
    something moves or not.

    Therefore all inertial frames of reference do not move by definition, if
    they rest in respect to the observer, whether they actually move or not.

    This makes everything 'relative' (to the observer), which includes
    actually matter, too.

    This would include also 'the aether', too, hence aether would be
    something, which rests in respect to the observer in question, while not
    in respect to other observers.

    Other observers therefore need their own 'aether' (and also their own
    matter!).

    This is why it is impossible to measure the speed of the aether, because 'aether' is defined as being at rest in respect to the observer.

    ...


    TH

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  • From Bertitaylor@21:1/5 to Thomas Heger on Sat Jun 28 01:06:34 2025
    On Fri, 27 Jun 2025 5:26:01 +0000, Thomas Heger wrote:

    Am Montag000023, 23.06.2025 um 22:40 schrieb Paul.B.Andersen:
    Den 23.06.2025 07:53, skrev bertietaylor:
    On Wed, 11 Jun 2025 18:50:07 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:


    If EM-radiation is a wave in an aether, it would be as easy
    to measure the speed of Earth relative to the aether,
    as it is to measure the speed of an aeroplane relative to the air.


    No. it is impossible, for reasons explained many a time, and once again
    below. For note,  aether is solid not gaseous like air. For another, the >>> speed of the aeroplane is based upon the rate of movement with respect
    to the ground below it.

    The "Airspeed Indicator" found in all planes measures the speed
    of the air relative to the plane.


    So if I toss a ball in a plane any way, its speed is always the same. I
    cannot find the speed of the ball one way with respect to the ground.

    This is obvious, and need no "explanation".

    Actually the surface of planet Earth moves, too.

    This movement is also quite fast, but usually ignored.

    We could, however, use this as a principle and ignore the velocity of reference systems in all cases, where we cannot decide, whether
    something moves or not.

    Therefore all inertial frames of reference do not move by definition, if
    they rest in respect to the observer, whether they actually move or not.

    This makes everything 'relative' (to the observer), which includes
    actually matter, too.

    This would include also 'the aether', too, hence aether would be
    something, which rests in respect to the observer in question, while not
    in respect to other observers.

    Other observers therefore need their own 'aether' (and also their own matter!).

    This is why it is impossible to measure the speed of the aether, because 'aether' is defined as being at rest in respect to the observer.

    Good, getting somewhere. Someone seems to agree that the basic goal of
    MMI experiment that is to method Earth's wrt static aether, was flawed.

    Next is to agree that is because of light speed variance, following
    divine Arindam.

    And then, throw out e=mcc and follow Arindam's new physics.

    WOOF woof-woof woof woof-woof woof

    Bertietaylor

    ....


    TH

    --

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  • From Paul.B.Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Sat Jun 28 12:55:08 2025
    Den 27.06.2025 07:26, skrev Thomas Heger:

    Actually the surface of planet Earth moves, too.

    This movement is also quite fast, but usually ignored.

    We could, however, use this as a principle and ignore the velocity of reference systems in all cases, where we cannot decide, whether
    something moves or not.

    Therefore all inertial frames of reference do not move by definition, if
    they rest in respect to the observer, whether they actually move or not.

    This makes everything 'relative' (to the observer), which includes
    actually matter, too.

    This would include also 'the aether', too, hence aether would be
    something, which rests in respect to the observer in question, while not
    in respect to other observers.

    Other observers therefore need their own 'aether' (and also their own matter!).

    This is why it is impossible to measure the speed of the aether, because 'aether' is defined as being at rest in respect to the observer.


    Quite, well said!

    The 'aether' has to be at rest in respect to all observers,
    even when the observers are moving relative each other.

    Since this is impossible, the conclusion is inevitable:
    It is impossible to measure the speed of the aether, because
    the 'aether' doesn't exist
    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

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  • From =?UTF-8?Q?Maciej_Wo=C5=BAniak?=@21:1/5 to Paul.B.Andersen on Sat Jun 28 16:25:38 2025
    On 6/28/2025 12:55 PM, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:
    Den 27.06.2025 07:26, skrev Thomas Heger:

    Actually the surface of planet Earth moves, too.

    This movement is also quite fast, but usually ignored.

    We could, however, use this as a principle and ignore the velocity of
    reference systems in all cases, where we cannot decide, whether
    something moves or not.

    Therefore all inertial frames of reference do not move by definition,
    if they rest in respect to the observer, whether they actually move or
    not.

    This makes everything 'relative' (to the observer), which includes
    actually matter, too.

    This would include also 'the aether', too, hence aether would be
    something, which rests in respect to the observer in question, while
    not in respect to other observers.

    Other observers therefore need their own 'aether' (and also their own
    matter!).

    This is why it is impossible to measure the speed of the aether,
    because 'aether' is defined as being at rest in respect to the observer.


    Quite, well said!

    The 'aether' has to be at rest in respect to all observers,
    even when the observers are moving relative each other.

    No, poor halfbrain, it doesn't have to, Lorentz's
    "aether" theory is "experimentally indistinguishable"
    from your SR and you're a piece of lying shit, what
    was well known before.

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  • From Thomas Heger@21:1/5 to All on Sat Jun 28 18:40:03 2025
    Am Samstag000028, 28.06.2025 um 12:55 schrieb Paul.B.Andersen:
    Den 27.06.2025 07:26, skrev Thomas Heger:

    Actually the surface of planet Earth moves, too.

    This movement is also quite fast, but usually ignored.

    We could, however, use this as a principle and ignore the velocity of
    reference systems in all cases, where we cannot decide, whether
    something moves or not.

    Therefore all inertial frames of reference do not move by definition,
    if they rest in respect to the observer, whether they actually move or
    not.

    This makes everything 'relative' (to the observer), which includes
    actually matter, too.

    This would include also 'the aether', too, hence aether would be
    something, which rests in respect to the observer in question, while
    not in respect to other observers.

    Other observers therefore need their own 'aether' (and also their own
    matter!).

    This is why it is impossible to measure the speed of the aether,
    because 'aether' is defined as being at rest in respect to the observer.


    Quite, well said!

    The 'aether' has to be at rest in respect to all observers,
    even when the observers are moving relative each other.

    Since this is impossible, the conclusion is inevitable:
    It is impossible to measure the speed of the aether, because
    the 'aether' doesn't exist

    Sure, but actually I use something equivalent instead:

    spacetime !


    My own concept is therefore called 'structured spacetime' (and not
    'structured aether'):


    https://docs.google.com/presentation/d/1Ur3_giuk2l439fxUa8QHX4wTDxBEaM6lOlgVUa0cFU4/edit?usp=sharing


    TH

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  • From Paul B. Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Sat Jun 28 20:36:57 2025
    Den 28.06.2025 16:25, skrev Maciej Woźniak:
    On 6/28/2025 12:55 PM, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:
    Den 27.06.2025 07:26, skrev Thomas Heger:


    This is why it is impossible to measure the speed of the aether,
    because 'aether' is defined as being at rest in respect to the observer. >>>

    Quite, well said!

    The 'aether' has to be at rest in respect to all observers,
    even when the observers are moving relative each other.

    Since this is impossible, the conclusion is inevitable:
    It is impossible to measure the speed of the aether, because
    the 'aether' doesn't exist



    Lorentz's
    "aether" theory is "experimentally indistinguishable"
    from your SR.


    Quite right.
    This is the first time you have written something with actual meaning!

    But the problem is, Lorentz's ether is impossible to detect.
    You can assign any arbitrary velocity of the ether relative to
    the observer, and LET (Lorentz Ether Theory) will predict the same.
    That means that the speed of the ether has no physical consequences.

    So Lorent's ether can indeed be considered to be at rest relative
    to all observers, even when the observers are moving relative each
    other.

    It's hard to consider such an ether for a real physical entity.

    https://paulba.no/div/LTorigin.pdf


    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

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  • From =?UTF-8?Q?Maciej_Wo=C5=BAniak?=@21:1/5 to Paul B. Andersen on Sat Jun 28 21:24:11 2025
    On 6/28/2025 8:36 PM, Paul B. Andersen wrote:
    Den 28.06.2025 16:25, skrev Maciej Woźniak:
    On 6/28/2025 12:55 PM, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:
    Den 27.06.2025 07:26, skrev Thomas Heger:


    This is why it is impossible to measure the speed of the aether,
    because 'aether' is defined as being at rest in respect to the observer.


    Quite, well said!

    The 'aether' has to be at rest in respect to all observers,
    even when the observers are moving relative each other.

    Since this is impossible, the conclusion is inevitable:
    It is impossible to measure the speed of the aether, because
    the 'aether' doesn't exist



    Lorentz's
    "aether" theory is "experimentally indistinguishable"
    from your SR.

    Quite right.
    This is the first time you have written something with actual meaning!

    But the problem is, Lorentz's ether is impossible to detect.

    No, the problem is that you're a fanatic
    idiot having no slightest clue about what
    you're mumbling about.
    BTW - if a measurement of a property of an observed
    object gives a result different than the real
    value of the property, the measurement is
    a)valid
    b)erroneous
    c)UUUUUUU!!!UUUUUUU!!!!!!!!UUUUUUUUUUU!!!!! UUUUUUUUUUUUUUUUU!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
    PLONK!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

    You can assign any arbitrary velocity of the ether relative to
    the observer, and LET (Lorentz Ether Theory) will predict the same.

    Sorry, poor trash, wrong - like usual.
    While it's a lie that The Shit of Einstein
    is predicting the clock correction of GPS -
    in LET they're obvious consequence of
    the theory.

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